Exam 19 September 2017, questions and answers Marketing Management (Alliance University) Chapter 2 to Chapter 10 Exam 19 September 2017, questions and answers Marketing Management (Alliance University) Chapter 2 to Chapter 10 Chapter 2: Developing Marketing Strategies and Plans GENERAL CONCEPT QUESTIONS Multiple Choice 66 Chapter 1: Marketing: Managing Profitable Customer Relationships 1. A key ingredient of the marketing management process is insightful, marketing strategies and plans that can guide marketing activities. a. creative b. measurable c. macro d. micro e. niche Page: 35 2. According to a chapter story about H&M clothing stores, H&M is able to put products out quickly and inexpensively by all of the following EXCEPT . a. having few middlemen and owning no factories b. buying large volumes c. having extensive experience in the clothing industry d. having a great knowledge of which goods should be bought from which markets e. having total control of its distribution channel from the time the goods are produced until the time they are sold Page: 36 3. The task of any business is to deliver at a profit. a. customer needs b. products c. customer value d. products and services e. improved quality Page: 36 4. In a hypercompetitive economy such as ours, a company can win only by fine- tuning the value delivery process and choosing, providing, and superior value. a. communicating b. selecting target markets with c. composing d. developing e. researching Page: 36 5. The traditional view of marketing is that the firm makes something and then it. a. markets b. sells c. distributes d. prices e. services Page: 36 67 Part 1: Defining Marketing and the Marketing Process 6. Today, the “mass-market” is actually splintering into numerous , each with its own wants, perceptions, preferences, and buying criteria. a. micromarkets b. market targets c. macromarkets d. customer cliques e. demographic units Page: 37 7. The first phase of the value creation and delivery sequence is that represents the “homework” marketing must do before any product exists. a. choosing the value b. market research c. target marketing d. service consideration e. projective thinking Page: 37 8. The last step in the value creation and delivery sequence is the value where the sales force, sales promotion, advertising, and other communication tools announce and promote the product. a. developing b. distributing c. communicating d. reversing e. researching Page: 37 9. The Japanese have refined the value delivery process to include a component that emphasizes . a. zero servicing b. zero customer feedback time c. zero promotion d. zero dependency on intermediaries e. zero marketing costs Page: 38 10. The is a tool for identifying ways to create more customer value. a. value chain b. customer survey c. brand loyalty index d. promotion channel e. supplier database Page: 38 11. The identifies nine strategically relevant activities that create value and cost in a specific business. a. value proposition b. value chain c. mission statement 68 Chapter 1: Marketing: Managing Profitable Customer Relationships d. annual report e. manager’s log Page: 38 12. The in the value chain cover the sequence of bringing materials into the business (inbound logistics), converting them into final products (operations), shipping out final products (outbound logistics), marketing them (marketing and sales), and servicing them (service). a. operations process b. manufacturing process c. primary activities d. secondary activities e. tertiary activities Page: 38 13. Procurement, technology development, human resource management, and firm infrastructure are handled in certain specialized departments and are called . a. materials handling b. support activities c. inventory activities d. primary activities e. benchmark activities Page: 38 14. The firm should estimate its competitors’ costs and performances as against which to compare its own costs and performance. a. competition b. standards c. challenges d. benchmarks e. moveable standards Page: 38 15. The firm’s success depends not only on how well each department performs its work, but also on how well the various departmental activities are coordinated to conduct . a. core strategies b. satellite businesses c. core values d. core business processes e. core technologies Page: 38 16. With respect to core business processes, all the activities involved in gathering market intelligence, disseminating it within the organization, and acting on the information is referred to as the . a. market sensing process b. market research process c. target marketing process d. market pulse process 69 Part 1: Defining Marketing and the Marketing Process e. deployment process Page: 38 17. With respect to the core business processes, all the activities involved in researching, developing, and launching new high-quality offerings quickly and within budget are referred to as the . a. new product process b. new offering realization process c. product development process d. product launch process e. return on investment process Page: 38 18. With respect to the core business processes, the is considered to be all the activities involved in defining target markets and prospecting for new customers. a. customer acquisition process b. customer relationship management process c. fulfillment management process d. customer prospecting process e. customer equity process Page: 38 70 Chapter 1: Marketing: Managing Profitable Customer Relationships 19. A good way to describe the would be discuss all the activities involved in building deeper understanding, relationships, and offerings to individual customers. a. customer acquisition process b. customer relationship management process c. customer prospecting process d. customer fulfillment management process e. customer equity process Page: 38 20. Another way to describe a value delivery network (partnering with specific suppliers and distributors) is to call it a . a. teamwork group b. cabal c. domestic power center d. link to relationships e. supply chain Page: 39 21. The key to utilizing organizational core competencies is to that make up the essence of the business. a. make the competencies pay for themselves b. own all intermediaries who come in contact with your goods and services c. own and nurture the resources and competencies d. emphasize global promotions e. segment workforces Page: 39 22. We can say that a has three characteristics: (1) It is a source of competitive advantage in that it makes a significant contribution to perceived customer benefits, (2) it has applications in a wide variety of markets, and (3) it is difficult for competitors to imitate. a. core competency b. business strategy c. core technology d. strategic business unit e. winning strategy Page: 39 23. Core competencies tend to refer to areas of special technical and production expertise, where tend to describe excellence in broader business processes. a. process benchmarks b. distinctive capabilities c. core business values d. value statements e. mission statements Page: 40 24. George Day sees market-driven organizations as excelling in three distinctive capabilities: , customer linking, and channel bonding. 71 Part 1: Defining Marketing and the Marketing Process a. target marketing b. market research c. fulfilling customer needs d. market sensing e. customer service relationships Page: 40 25. Competitors find it hard to imitate companies such as Southwest Airlines, Dell, or IKEA because they are unable to copy their . a. product innovations b. distribution strategy c. pricing policies d. activity systems e. logistics system Page: 40 26. One conception of holistic marketing views it as “integrating the value exploration, , and value delivery activities with the purpose of building long-term, mutually satisfying relationships and co-prosperity among key stakeholders.” a. value creation b. value proposition c. value management d. value research e. value chain Page: 40 27. Holistic marketers achieve profitable growth by expanding customer share, , and capturing customer lifetime value. a. undermining competitive competencies b. building customer loyalty c. milking the market for product desires d. renewing a customer base e. inspecting all market share data Page: 40 28. The holistic marketing framework is designed to address three key management questions. Which of the following is one of those questions? a. Value claims—how does the company deal with value erosion? b. Value proposition—how can value propositions be made profitable? c. Value chain—are there weak links in the company’s value chain d. Value network—how can a company effectively network? e. Value exploration—how can a company identify new value opportunities? Page: 41 29. The customer’s reflects existing and latent needs and includes dimensions such as the need for participation, stability, freedom, and change. a. competence space b. resource space c. emotional space 72 Chapter 1: Marketing: Managing Profitable Customer Relationships d. relationship space e. cognitive space Page: 41 30. The company’s can be described in terms of breadth—broad versus focused scope of business; and depth—physical versus knowledge-based capabilities. a. business mission b. core strategy c. cognitive space d. competency space e. resource space Page: 41 31. The collaborator’s involves horizontal partnerships, where companies choose partners based on their ability to exploit related market opportunities, and vertical partnerships, where companies choose partners based on their ability to serve their value creation. a. resource space b. competency space c. cognitive space d. rational space e. service space Page: 41 32. Business realignment may be necessary to maximize core competencies. Which of the following would be one of the steps in this realignment process? a. Reviewing all macro relationships. b. Reviewing global outreach projections. c. Redefining the business concept (the “big idea”). d. Reviewing successes from e-commerce (if any). e. Revamping the ethics statement. Page: 41 Part 1: Defining Marketing and the Marketing Process 33. allows the company to discover who its customers are, how they behave, and what they need or want. It also enables the company to respond appropriately, coherently, and quickly to different customer opportunities. a. Network management b. Strategic management c. Marketing management d. Customer relationship management e. Total quality management Page: 41 34. To respond effectively and provide value delivery, the company requires to integrate major business processes (e.g., order processing, general ledger, payroll, and production) within a single family of software modules. a. human resource management b. internal auditing management c. internal resource management d. strategic management e. marketing management Page: 41 35. With respect to value delivery, allows the company to handle complex relationships with its trading partners to source, process, and deliver products. a. a value matrix b. a global distribution policy c. a business development strategy d. business partnership management e. total quality management Page: 41 36. Successful marketing requires having capabilities such as understanding , creating customer value, delivering customer value, capturing customer value, and sustaining customer value. a. customer loyalty b. customer perks c. customer retention d. customer value e. customer benefits Page: 41 Chapter 1: Marketing: Managing Profitable Customer Relationships 37. According to a McKinsey research study, which of the following is one of the main challenges that marketing must face in the twenty-first century? a. The threat of ethics-based lawsuits. b. Doing more with less. c. Hostile takeover attempts. d. Increasing control by big government. e. Being independent of the distribution process. Page: 42 38. Strategic planning in the twenty-first century calls for action in three key areas. Which of these key areas deals specifically with devising a long-term game plan for achieving long-run objectives? a. Creating a viable business opportunity. b. Producing a strategic fit. c. Developing an investment portfolio. d. Expanding core competencies. e. Establishing a strategy. Page: 42 39. Most large companies consist of four organizational levels: the , the division level, the business unit level, and the product level. a. board of director level b. major stakeholder level c. management team level d. corporate level e. strategic level Page: 43 40. The is the central instrument for directing and coordinating the marketing effort. a. strategic plan b. marketing plan c. tactical plan d. customer value statement e. corporate mission Page: 43 41. The lays out the target markets and the value proposition that will be offered, based on an analysis of the best market opportunities. a. organizational plan b. strategic marketing plan c. corporate tactical plan d. corporate mission e. customer value statement Page: 43 42. In which of the following plans would we most likely find directions for implementing and addressing daily challenges and opportunities in product features, promotion, merchandising, pricing, sales channels, and service areas. a. The tactical marketing plan. 75 Part 1: Defining Marketing and the Marketing Process b. The target marketing plan. c. The deployment plan. d. The product launch plan. e. The product development plan. Page: 43 43. If you wanted to find out more about target markets and the organization’s value proposition, which of the following types of plans would most likely contain information that might be useful to you in your quest? a. The marketing plan. b. The organizational plan. c. The strategic marketing plan. d. The tactical marketing plan. e. The marketing mix plan. Page: 43 44. The process consists of corporate, division, business, and product planning. a. implementing b. controlling c. innovation d. planning e. competitive Page: 44 45. All corporate headquarters undertake four planning activities, the first of which is . a. defining the corporate mission b. establishing strategic business units and assigning resources (SBUs) c. assigning resources to each SBU d. assessing growth opportunities e. understanding target markets Page: 44 46. A clear, thoughtful mission statement provides employees with a shared sense of purpose, direction, and . a. profitability b. target market feasibility c. opportunity d. continuous improvement e. quality products Page: 44 76 Chapter 1: Marketing: Managing Profitable Customer Relationships 47. Mission statements are at their best when they reflect a . a. market b. strength c. competency d. vision e. value Page: 44 48. Which of the following terms matches to the phrase “it is a single business or collection of related businesses that can be planned separately from the rest of the company”? a. Strategic business unit. b. Diverse business unit. c. Growth business unit. d. Niche market unit. e. Specialized business unit. Page: 47 49. Market-penetration, product-development, and market-development strategies would all be examples of strategies. a. concentric b. conglomerate c. horizontal d. intensive growth e. integrative growth Page: 48 50. A(n) is when a company might seek new businesses that have no relationship to its current technology, products, or markets. a. concentric strategy b. conglomerate strategy c. horizontal strategy d. intensive growth strategy e. integrative strategy Page: 49 51. Which of the following terms most closely matches to “the shared experiences, stories, beliefs, and norms that characterize an organization”? a. Organizational dynamics. b. A business mission. c. An ethical/value statement. d. Customer relationships. e. Corporate culture. Page: 50 52. The first step in the business unit strategic-planning process deals with which of the following? a. Goal formulation. b. Business mission. c. Strategy formulation. Part 1: Defining Marketing and the Marketing Process d. Program formulation. e. SWOT analysis. Page: 51 53. When a business gets to know market segments intimately and pursues either cost leadership or differentiation within the target segment it is referred to as a . a. defined strategy b. focused strategy c. value-added strategy d. competitive advantage strategy e. customer-focused strategy Page: 56 54. If a firm pursues a strategy, it must be good at engineering, purchasing, manufacturing, and physical distribution. a. differentiation b. overall cost leadership c. focus d. domestic customer relationship e. market share Page: 56 55. To keep their strategic alliances thriving, corporations have begun to develop organizational structures to support them and have come to view the ability to form and manage partnerships as core skills. This is called . a. value managed partnership b. synergistic partnership c. centralized partnership d. partner relationship management e. win-win relationship management Page: 57 56. Traditionally, most businesses focused on stockholders. Today, the focus is on what are called . a. stakeholders b. partners c. regulators d. consumer triads e. supply-chain relationships Page: 58 57. A is a written document that summarizes what the marketer has learned about the marketplace and indicates how the firm plans to reach its marketing objectives. a. strategic plan b. marketing plan c. sales plan d. target market plan e. competitive analysis plan Page: 60 78Chapter 1: Marketing: Managing Profitable Customer Relationships 58. Which of the following permits senior management to grasp the marketing plan’s major thrust? a. The situation analysis. b. The marketing strategy. c. The executive summary and table of contents. d. Financial projections. e. Implementation and controls. Page: 60 59. Most marketing plans cover . a. one year b. two years c. three years d. four years e. five years Page: 60 60. The most frequently cited shortcomings of current marketing plans, according to marketing executives, are lack of realism, insufficient competitive analysis, and a focus. a. long-term b. profit c. short-run d. product e. price Page: 60 True/False 61. The traditional view of marketing is that the firm makes something and then sells it. Page: 36 62. The traditional view of marketing begins with a first step called strategic marketing. Page: 36 63. The formula, segmentation, targeting, and positioning (STP) is the essence of strategic marketing. Page: 37 64. The Japanese have extended the value delivery process by adding the concept of zero promotions after five years. Page: 38 65. The customer relationship management process is all the activities involved in receiving and approving orders, shipping the goods on time, and collecting payment. 79Part 1: Defining Marketing and the Marketing Process Page: 38 66. A principle of the value chain is that every firm is a synthesis of activities performed to design, produce, market, deliver, and support its product. Page: 38 67. Another name for a company’s value delivery network is “the intermediary team.” Page: 39 68. A core competency is usually common among competitors in a given industry. Page: 39 69. Holistic marketing focuses on the integration of value exploration, value creation, and value delivery as a means to build long-term relationships with consumers. Page: 40 70. If a manager asks “How can my company identify new value opportunities?,” he or she is examining a management question identified as being value creation. Page: 41 71. According to McKinsey research, a recommendation to managers and CEOs who are concerned about marketing performance was that marketers must test and develop programs more quickly as they enhance planning processes and research approaches. Page: 42 72. The marketing plan is the central instrument for directing and coordinating the marketing effort. Page: 43 73. A mission statement has as its primary focus the product and how to make it. Page: 44 74. One of the characteristics of a good mission statement is that it has an expansive number of goals for doing business. Page: 44 75. A good illustration of a market definition of the business a company is in would be “We sell gasoline.” Page: 46 76. If a company sought to expand the number of existing products sold to its current markets, it would use an integrative growth strategy labeled as “market- penetration strategy.” Page: 48 77. If a company sought to grow via a strategy that required the company to seek new businesses that have no relationship to its current technology, products, or markets, the company would be using a diversification strategy called a conglomerate strategy. 80 Chapter 1: Marketing: Managing Profitable Customer Relationships Page: 49 78. Scenario analysis can be used to assist companies in appraising how well their corporate culture might match (or not match) potential business partners or acquisitions. Page: 51 79. Once an organization has established a business mission in its business unit strategic-planning process, it may proceed to the second step of the planning process called goal formulation. Page: 51 80. Good illustrations of microenvironment actors in the strategic planning process would be demographics, technology, and the social-cultural arena. Page: 52 81. To evaluate opportunities, companies can use Market Opportunity Analysis (MOA) to determine the attractiveness and probability of success. Page: 53 82. An environmental threat is a challenge posed by an unfavorable trend or development that would lead, in the absence of defensive marketing action, to lower sales or profit. Page: 53 83. Once a SWOT analysis has been completed, the strategic planner is ready to proceed to the goal formulation stage of the strategic planning process model. Page: 54 84. In applying MBO (management by objectives) all objectives are treated as being equally important—objective discrimination is not allowed. Page: 54 85. For an MBO (management by objectives) system to work, one of the four criteria that the unit’s objectives must meet is that objectives must be stated quantitatively whenever possible. Page: 55 86. A strategy is a game plan for achieving what the business unit wants to achieve. Page: 56 87. Firms choosing a generic strategy centering on focus must be good at engineering, purchasing, manufacturing, and physical distribution. Page: 56 88. One of the four major categories of strategic alliance involves sharing personnel (e.g., human resource alliance) to staff alliance member marketing departments. Page: 57 81 Part 1: Defining Marketing and the Marketing Process 89. Partner Relationship Management (PRM) can be thought of as a corporation’s development of structures that support strategic alliances and treats the formation and management of partnerships as a core skill. Page: 57 90. Companies normally measure their profit performance using ROI; however, this approach suffers because profits are arbitrarily measured and subject to manipulation. Page: 58 91. A marketing vision statement is a written document that summarizes what the marketer has learned about the marketplace and indicates how the firm plans to reach its marketing objectives. Page: 60 92. Marketing plans are becoming more production-oriented because of the high costs of doing business in today’s economy. Page: 60 93. The marketing plan should open with a situation analysis. Page: 60 94. When a manager reaches the marketing strategy section of a marketing plan, he or she will define the mission and marketing and financial objectives. Page: 60 95. One of the key questions to ask in evaluating a marketing plan is whether the plan is simple or not. Page: 61 96. Such areas as sales forecasts, expense forecasts, and breakeven analysis are usually found in the financial projections section of the marketing plan. Page: 61 97. Return on investment (ROI) shows how many units must be sold monthly to offset the monthly fixed costs and average per-unit variable costs. Page: 61 98. Most marketing plans conclude with a section that indicates how the plan will be implemented. Page: 61 99. During the marketing strategy section of the marketing plan, goals and budgets are spelled out for each month or quarter so management can review each period’s results and take corrective action as needed. Page: 61 100. A good illustration of a marketing objective would to “decrease customer acquisition costs by 1.5 percent per quarter.” Page: 64 82Chapter 1: Marketing: Managing Profitable Customer Relationships Essay 101. There are two views of the value delivery process that may be followed by organizations seeking to gain business from consumers. Briefly, summarize each of those views. 102. The firm’s success depends not only on how well each department performs its work, but also on how well the various departmental activities are coordinated to conduct core business processes. List and briefly describe the five core business processes outlined in the text. 103. A successful company nurtures its resources and competencies. A core competency has three characteristics. Describe those characteristics. 104. A holistic marketing orientation can provide insight into the process of capturing customer value. In this vain, the holistic marketing framework is 83 Part 1: Defining Marketing and the Marketing Process designed to address three key management questions. Describe and illustrate each of these key management questions. Page: 41 105. Marketing faces a number of challenges in the twenty-first century. Based on an extensive 2002 research study, McKinsey (a noted consulting firm) identified three main challenges as reflected by differences in opinion between chief executive officers (CEOs) and their most senior marketing executives or chief marketing officers (CMOs). What were those challenges and which of the challenges do you think is most important? Why? 84 Chapter 1: Marketing: Managing Profitable Customer Relationships However, be sure that any answer chosen is supported by materials found in this section of the chapter. Page: 42 106. Indicate the differences and similarities between the following terms: marketing plan, strategic marketing plan, and tactical marketing plan. 107. Good mission statements are essential to being a success in business. Describe the three major characteristics that good mission statements should have. 108. Assessing growth opportunities involves planning new businesses, downsizing, or terminating older businesses. The company’s plans for existing businesses allow it to project total sales and profits. If there is a gap between future desired sales and projected sales, corporate management will have to develop or acquire new businesses to fill it. Identify and describe the three strategies that can be used to fill the strategic gap. 85 Part 1: Defining Marketing and the Marketing Process 109. Assume that you are directed to prepare short brief explaining the steps of the Business Unit Strategic-Planning Process. Your task is to construct such a brief by carefully outlining the steps of the aforementioned process. 110. As a marketing manager for a large steel company you have been assigned the task of educating a group of new managers on how to prepare a marketing plan. Though few of these managers will actually ever have to prepare such a plan because of their functional roles in the organization, it is still very useful that each new manager know how to construct a marketing plan. Prepare a brief summary of the contents of the marketing plan for the new managers. You may keep your discussion general or make it specific to the steel industry. APPLICATION QUESTIONS Multiple Choice 111. If a manager were following the traditional view of marketing wherein the firm makes something and then sells it, all of the following would part of the “sell the product” process sequence EXCEPT . a. price b. advertise/promote c. design product d. distribute e. service Page: 36 86 Chapter 1: Marketing: Managing Profitable Customer Relationships 112. As indicated in the text, critics of Nike and its shoe products often complain that . a. Nike has too many professional athletes endorsing their products b. Nike has an unfair advantage in product design c. Nike has unfair leverage with distributors d. Nike shoes cost almost nothing to make yet cost the consumer so much e. Nike does not support ecological causes Page: 37 113. According to the Japanese view of the value delivery process, the company should receive the required parts and supplies continuously through just-in- time arrangements with suppliers. This concept would be most appropriately called . a. zero customer feedback time b. zero product improvement time c. zero purchasing time d. zero setup time e. zero defect Page: 38 114. Apex Corporation is known in its industry being “best of class” in terms of costs and performance. Many companies will probably use Apex Corporation as a . a. target b. benchmark c. competitor to beat d. future supplier e. sounding board for ideas Page: 38 115. James Franks has been put in charge of gathering marketing intelligence, disseminating it within his organization, and eventually directing action on the information. Which of the following core business processes most closely matches with the task that Mr. Franks has been given? a. The market sensing process. b. The new offering realization process. c. The customer acquisition process. d. The customer relationship management process. e. The fulfillment management process. Page: 38 87Part 1: Defining Marketing and the Marketing Process 116. Netflix, the pioneer online DVD rental service, has what is called because they are excellent in broad business processes. a. core competency b. distinctive capabilities c. market savvy d. business touch e. intuitive synergy Page: 40 117. George Day sees organizations as excelling in three distinctive capabilities: market sensing, customer linking, and channel bonding. a. production-driven b. globally-driven c. human resource-driven d. engineering-driven e. market-driven Page: 40 118. Holistic marketers achieve profitable growth by expanding , building customer loyalty, and capturing customer lifetime value. a. design skills b. customer share c. promotion venues d. database resources e. competitive space share Page: 40 119. In the past Kodak was not necessarily known for embracing technology that did not come from Kodak engineers and designers. However, as Kodak addresses the digital revolution taking over the photographic industry, it wants customers to see it as a leader in digital photography and is moving away from its connection to print-only photography. This would be an example of which of the following value-creation steps? a. Redefining the big idea. b. Reshaping the business scope. c. Repositioning the company’s brand identity. d. Redoing its corporate logo. e. Researching its competitors. Page: 41 88 Chapter 1: Marketing: Managing Profitable Customer Relationships 120. According to a McKinsey report, CEOs need and expect all areas of their organizations to be more efficient. Which of the following statements would be the best illustration of this need and expectation? a. Doing more with more. b. Doing less with less. c. Doing less with more. d. Doing more with less. e. Doing about the same with more. Page: 42 121. According to a recent McKinsey report regarding characteristics that help to position marketers as business development leaders, illustrates one of those characteristics. a. “never bite off more than you can chew” b. “if it ain’t broke, don’t fix it” c. “always pursue Internet opportunities” d. “strike while the iron is hot” e. “identify profitable unmet needs before brainstorming creative solutions” Page: 42 122. According to Collins and Porras’ Built to Last, is characterized as a visionary company—acknowledged as the industry leader and widely admired because they set ambitious goals, communicated them to their employees, and embraced a high purpose beyond making money. a. General Electric b. Delta Airlines c. Farmer’s Insurance d. Wells Fargo e. McDonald’s Page: 43 123. Juan Garcia is seen as a planner because he plans the daily promotional releases about his company’s products and services. a. strategic b. selective c. tactical d. niche e. organizational Page: 43 Part 1: Defining Marketing and the Marketing Process 124. Sony’s former president, Akio Morita, wanted everyone to have access to “personal portable sound,” so his company created the Walkman and portable CD player. Which of the following planning aids most likely assisted Mr. Morita with his vision? a. The mission statement. b. A SWOT analysis. c. Knowledge of customers. d. A database. e. An executive summary to a formal marketing plan. Page: 44 125. Which of the following most closely matches a correct market-oriented definition of a business? a. Missouri-Pacific Railroad—we run a railroad. b. Xerox—we make copying equipment. c. Standard Oil—we sell gasoline. d. Encyclopedia Britannica—we distribute information. e. Columbia Pictures—we make movies. Page: 46 126. If you were the CEO of a company that was looking to implement strategies to fill a perceived strategic-planning gap, you would most likely explore growth first because it would be easier to improve an existing business rather than building a new one. a. intensive b. integrative c. diversification d. conglomerate e. concentric Page: 47 127. If you were the marketing manager of an organization that had chosen growth via current products sold to new markets, your organization would have chosen a strategy. a. market-penetration b. market-development c. product-development d. diversification e. concentric Page: 48 Chapter 1: Marketing: Managing Profitable Customer Relationships 128. describes the way people in an organization are dressed, how they talk to one another, and the way they greet their customers. a. Strategic orientation b. Competitive positioning c. Distinctive advantage d. HR training strategy e. Corporate culture Page: 50 129. Once an organization establishes its business mission, conducts a SWOT analysis, and goes through a goal formulation process, it is ready to go through a step called to continue with a strategic-planning process. a. program formulation b. strategy formulation c. implementation d. functional analysis e. feedback and control Page: 51 130. McDonald’s has often teamed up with Disney to offer products related to current Disney films as part of its meals for children. The best description of this form of alliance would a alliance. a. product alliance b. logistics alliance c. pricing collaboration d. service e. promotional Page: 57 Short Answer 131. If you were the marketing manager for small regional toy manufacturer who embraced strategic marketing application to your value creation and delivery sequence process, you would use three processes or acts to choose the value of your offer. Name those three processes. Page: 36 132. In the example of Gymboree, we learn that they are a 530-store chain that sells children’s clothing to upscale parents. Because there are not enough parents making more than $65,000 year to support more stores, Gymboree has created Janie and Jack, a chain selling upscale baby gifts. Hot Topic, a chain that sells rock-band inspired clothes for teens, recently launched Torrid to give plus-size teens the same fashion options. Instead of emphasizing making and selling, this company sees itself as part of a value delivery process. The value delivery process consists of three parts. What are those parts and what is their function? Part 1: Defining Marketing and the Marketing Process Page: 37 133. Define value chain. What does a value chain do? 134. If an organization was very strong at defining target markets and prospecting for new customers, which of the core business processes would this organization have mastered? 135. In a holistic marketing framework with respect to customer focus, what would be components that would match to value exploration, value creation, and value delivery? 136. What three spaces are discussed when a holistic marketing organization goes through a value exploration? Chapter 1: Marketing: Managing Profitable Customer Relationships 137. In the central role of strategic planning, only a handful of companies stand out as master marketers—Procter & Gamble, Southwest Airlines, Nike, Disney, Nordstrom, Wal-Mart, and McDonald’s to name a few. From a consumers perspective why do you think they stand out? Explain. 138. All corporate headquarters undertake four planning activities. What are those activities? 139. Porsche makes only expensive cars and Gerber serves primarily the baby market. Which of the major competitive spheres within which a company will operate matches most closely to the examples above? 140. Ansoft’s product-market expansion grid shows three intensive growth strategies that can be used to assist a marketing manager in finding creative ways to close a perceived strategic gap. Characterize each of the cells of Ansoft’s grid. 141. If a company decides to acquire one of its suppliers to gain more control or generate profit, it would have chosen which form of integrative growth 142. When Yahoo! began to flounder in the 2001, CEO Terry Semel imposed a more conservative, buttoned-down atmosphere on the freewheeling Internet Part 1: Defining Marketing and the Marketing Process startup. At the new Yahoo!, spontaneity is out and order is in. What term is most closely applied to the organizational change phenomenon described above? Be sure to explain what the term means with respect to the example provided. 143. Describe what happens in scenario analysis and explain why firms such as Royal Dutch/Shell Group use the technique. 144. Explain what happens in a SWOT analysis during the strategic planning process. Page: 52 145. What questions would typically be asked during a market opportunity analysis (MOA)? Page: 53 Chapter 1: Marketing: Managing Profitable Customer Relationships 146. For an MBO system to work, the business unit attempting to implement the process must meet four criteria. What are those criteria? 147. Which of Michael Porter’s generic strategies would be most appropriate for an organization that concentrates on achieving superior performance in an important customer benefit area valued by a large part of the market? Quality leadership would be one example of the end result of such a strategy. 148. When H&R Block and Hyatt Legal Services combined their efforts (two service businesses), they also joined marketing forces to create a strong alliance. Which of the alliance forms cited in the text most closely matches the H&R Block and Hyatt Legal Services alliance? Explain. 149. Characterize a marketing plan. Page: 60 150. During which stage of the marketing plan will the marketing manager establish the product line’s positioning? Chapter 3: Gathering Information and Scanning the Environment GENERAL CONCEPT QUESTIONS Part 1: Defining Marketing and the Marketing Process Multiple Choice 1. The major responsibility for identifying significant marketplace changes falls to the . a. U.S. Department of Labor b. company’s marketers c. American Marketing Association d. industry lobby groups found in Washington, D.C. e. marketing research industry Page: 72 2. Marketers have extensive information about how consumption patterns vary across countries. On a per capita basis within Western Europe, the smoke the most cigarettes. a. Swiss b. Greeks c. Irish d. Austrians e. French Page: 72 3. All of the following questions EXCEPT , would be considered to be forms of information needs probes. a. What decisions do you regularly make? b. What information do you need to make decisions? c. What data analysis programs would you want? d. What magazines and trade reports would you like to see on a regular basis? e. What products would be most closely matched to consumer needs? Page: 73 96 Chapter 1: Marketing: Managing Profitable Customer Relationships 4. consists of people, equipment, and procedures to gather, sort, analyze, evaluate, and distribute needed, timely, and accurate information to marketing decision makers. a. A marketing information system b. A marketing research system c. A marketing intelligence system d. A promotional campaign e. A marketing database Page: 73 5. The company’s marketing information system should be a cross between what managers think they need, what managers really need, and . a. what the marketing research department is able to do b. what consumers are willing to share c. what the competition is doing d. what is acceptable industry practice e. what is economically feasible Page: 73 6. Marketing managers rely on internal reports. By analyzing this information, they can spot . a. micro-markets b. opportunities and problems c. macro-markets d. competitive strategies e. consumer demographic units Page: 73 7. The heart of the internal records system is the . a. database b. asset acquisition process c. order-to-payment cycle d. service consideration e. information liquidity ratio Page: 73 8. When a marketer “mines” his or her company’s database, fresh insights can be gained into neglected customer segments, , and other useful information. a. recent customer trends b. long-term competitive trends c. possible new inventions d. possible new technologies e. new primary data possibilities Page: 74 9. The internal records system supplies results data, but the marketing intelligence system supplies data. a. concurrent b. secondary c. research 97 Part 1: Defining Marketing and the Marketing Process d. happenings e. premium Page: 74 10. A is a set of procedures and sources managers use to obtain everyday information about developments in the marketing environment. a. marketing research system b. marketing information system c. product management system d. marketing intelligence system e. vertical system Page: 74 11. A company can take several steps to improve the quality of its marketing intelligence. If the company purchases competitive products for study, attends open houses and trade shows, and reads competitors’ published reports and stockholder information, the company is using to improve the quality of its marketing intelligence. a. sales force surrogates b. intermediaries c. external networks d. advisory panels e. customer feedback systems Pages: 74–75 12. All of the following would be considered to be steps to improve the quality of marketing intelligence in a company EXCEPT . a. a company can train and motivate the sales force to spot and report new developments b. a company can use guerrilla tactics such as going through a competitor’s trash c. a company can motivate intermediaries to pass along important information d. a company can network externally e. a company can purchase information from outside suppliers Pages: 74–76 98 Chapter 1: Marketing: Managing Profitable Customer Relationships 13. The 2000 U.S. census provides an in-depth look at the population swings, demographic groups, regional migrations, and changing family structure of 281 million people. Which of the following steps to improve the quality of company marketing intelligence system would be most closely associated the above illustration? a. A company can purchase information from outside suppliers. b. A company can take advantage of government data sources. c. A company can use online customer feedback systems to collect data. d. A company can network externally. e. A company can use its sales force to collect and report data. Page: 76 14. There are four main ways that marketers can find relevant online information on competitors’ products and weaknesses, and summary comments and overall performance rating of a product, service, or supplier. is(are) a type of site that is concentrated in financial services and high-tech products that require professional knowledge. a. Independent customer goods and service reviews b. Distributor or sales agent feedback sites c. Combo-sites offering customer reviews and expert opinions d. Customer complaint sites e. Shopping bot service sites Page: 77 15. A is “unpredictable, short-lived, and without social, economic, and political significance.” a. fad b. fashion c. trend d. megatrend e. style Page: 77 16. A is a direction or sequence of events that has some momentum and durability; the shape of the future is revealed and many opportunities are provided. a. fad b. fashion c. trend d. megatrend e. style Page: 77 99 Part 1: Defining Marketing and the Marketing Process 17. have been described as “large social, economic, political and technological changes [that] are slow to form, and once in place, they influence us for some time—between seven and ten years, or longer. a. Fads b. Fashions c. Trends d. Megatrends e. Styles Page: 77 18. Which of the following minority groups in the United States has been associated with one of the ten megatrends shaping the consumer landscape? a. African Americans b. Asian Americans c. European Americans d. Hispanic Americans e. Middle Eastern Americans Page: 78 19. The beginning of the new century brought a series of new challenges. All of the following would be considered to be among those challenges EXCEPT . a. a deterioration of innovative ideas b. steep decline of the stock market c. increasing unemployment d. corporate scandals e. the rise of terrorism Page: 78 20. With the rapidly changing global picture, the firm must monitor six major forces. All of the following would be among those forces EXCEPT . a. demographic b. economic c. social-cultural d. natural e. promotional Page: 78 21. The main demographic force that marketers monitor is(are) . a. suppliers b. competitors c. communication (such as advertising) d. government reports dealing with birth rates e. population Page: 79 22. The population explosion has been a source of major concern. Unchecked population growth and consumption could eventually result in all of the following EXCEPT . a. insufficient food supply b. depletion of key minerals 100 Chapter 1: Marketing: Managing Profitable Customer Relationships c. overcrowding d. restrictions on competition e. pollution Page: 79 23. One impact of explosive population growth is illustrated by the case of China. The Chinese government passed regulations limiting families to one child. One consequence of these regulations is that . a. the children are so fussed over and spoiled that they become “little emperors” b. school enrollments are dropping c. the fledgling automotive business in China will not have customers in a few years d. open rebellion is being preached e. “child-oriented businesses” have few customers Page: 80 24. A significant fact about population growth and population shifts is that in 2004 or 2005, . a. the youth market will exceed that of the adult market b. people over the age of 60 will outnumber those under five years of age c. baby boomers will be eclipsed by Gen X young adults d. most age group segments will be about equal e. Gen Y young adults will surpass the baby boomers as the largest age segment Page: 80 25. Which of the following age groups is thought to control three-quarters of the country’s wealth? a. 0–20 age segment b. 60 age segment c. 20–30 age segment d. 30–40 age segment e. 40 age segment Page: 81 101 Part 1: Defining Marketing and the Marketing Process 26. At one time the United States was called a “melting pot” society because of the number of different cultures that were integrated into the U.S. culture. Today, the United States is described as a society because many ethnic groups are maintaining their ethnic differences, neighborhoods, and cultures. a. “boiling pot” b. “salad bowl” c. “banana split” d. “doubled up” e. “non-communicative” Page: 81 27. According to the 2000 census, the U.S. population of 276.2 million was 72 percent white and percent African American. The remainder consisted of Hispanic Americans and other minorities. a. 20 b. 18 c. 15 d. 13 e. 11 Page: 81 28. Diversity goes beyond ethnic and racial markets. More than million Americans have disabilities, and they constitute a market for home delivery companies (and others). a. 50 b. 40 c. 30 d. 20 e. 10 Page: 83 29. Which of the following countries is known for having 99 percent of its population literate? a. England b. Germany c. France d. United States e. Japan Page: 83 102 Chapter 1: Marketing: Managing Profitable Customer Relationships 30. The household consists of a husband, wife, and children (and sometimes grandparents). a. “traditional” b. “extended” c. “diversity” d. “modern” e. “revised” Page: 83 31. Married couple households—the dominant cohort since the formulation of the United States—has slipped from nearly 80 percent in the 1950s to around percent today. a. 70 b. 60 c. 50 d. 40 e. 35 Page: 83 32. The twenty-first century saw markets grow more rapidly again due to a higher birth rate, a lower death rate, and rapid growth from foreign immigration. a. suburban b. urban c. rural d. coastal e. secondary Page: 84 33. The movement by population to the has lessened the demand for warm clothing and home heating equipment and increased demand for air conditioning. a. Grainbelt b. Pacific Northwest c. Sunbelt d. Mid-Coastal areas e. Heartland Page: 84 103 Part 1: Defining Marketing and the Marketing Process 34. Marketers look at where consumers are gathering. Almost one in people over the age of five (120 million) moved at least one time between 1995 and 2000, according to a Census 2000 brief. a. two b. three c. four d. five e. ten Page: 85 35. In which of the following economies would we expect to find few opportunities for marketers? a. Industrializing economies. b. Land-locked economies. c. Raw-material-exporting economies. d. Industrial economies. e. Subsistence economies. Page: 86 36. According to information presented in the text, which of the following countries is surprisingly a very good market for Lamborghini automobiles (costing more than $150,000) because of the number of wealthy families that can afford expensive cars. a. Greece b. Switzerland c. Holland d. Russia e. Portugal Page: 86 37. Over the past three decades in the United States, the rich have grown richer and the middle class has . a. stayed about the same b. shrunk c. increased slightly d. matched the rich in terms of relative growth e. been ignored because of problems with the poorer classes Page: 86 38. shapes the beliefs, values, and norms that largely define the tastes and preferences. a. Marketing b. The mass media c. Government d. Production innovation and engineering e. Society Page: 87 39. If a consumer lives the lifestyle of a “pleasure seeker” or goes on a “self- realization” quest, he or she is expressing what is called . a. views of others 104 Chapter 1: Marketing: Managing Profitable Customer Relationships b. views of society c. views of themselves d. views of organizations e. views of the universe Pages: 87–88 40. According to the information found in the social-cultural environment, with respect to views of others, are considered to be things that allow people who are alone to feel they are not (e.g., television, home video games, and chat rooms on the Internet). a. social surrogates b. subliminal fantasies c. relationship avoidance d. primary products e. secondary products Page: 88 41. Today, corporations need to make sure that they are good corporate citizens and that their consumer messages are honest. Such a view would be consistent with which of the following views? a. Views of others. b. Views of organizations. c. Views of themselves. d. Views of the universe. e. Views of society. Page: 88 42. People vary in their attitudes toward their society. usually live more frugally, drive smaller cars, and wear simpler clothing. a. Makers b. Escapers c. Seekers d. Changers e. Developers Page: 88 105 Part 1: Defining Marketing and the Marketing Process 43. People vary in their attitudes toward society and react accordingly. are a major market for movies, music, surfing, and camping. a. Makers b. Preservers c. Escapers d. Changers e. Developers Page: 88 44. All of the following have been cited by the text as being among Americans’ core values EXCEPT . a. they believe in work b. they believe in getting married c. they believe in giving to charity d. they believe in being honest e. they believe in sexual permissiveness Page: 88 45. Which of the following would be the best illustration of a secondary belief or value? a. Belief in work. b. Belief in giving to charity. c. Belief in getting married. d. Belief in getting married early. e. Belief in being honest. Page: 88 46. Which of the following is by far the most popular American leisure activity in that it is preferred by 59 percent of adults who participate in such activities? a. Gardening. b. Walking for exercise. c. Swimming. d. Photography. e. Jogging or running. Page: 89 47. Each society contains , groups with shared values emerging from their special life experiences or circumstances. a. demographic segments b. cliques c. consumer bundles d. subcultures e. behavioral niches Page: 89 106 Chapter 1: Marketing: Managing Profitable Customer Relationships 48. Which of the following would be the best illustration of a subculture? a. A softball team. b. A university alumni association. c. Teenagers. d. A Boy Scout troop. e. Frequent flyers. Page: 89 49. All of the following EXCEPT have been found to influence young people today and cause a shift of secondary cores values for this group. a. U2’s Bono. b. Elvis Presley. c. The NBA’s LeBron James. d. Golf’s Tiger Woods. e. Skateboarder Tony Hawk. Page: 89 50. Although core values are fairly persistent, cultural swings do take place. caused such a swing in the 1960s. a. Ford Motor Company b. George McGovern c. G.I. Joe action characters d. The infomercial e. The Beatles Page: 89 51. Marketers need to be aware of threats and opportunities associated with four trends in the natural environment. All of the following are among those trends EXCEPT . a. the shortage of raw materials b. the increased cost of energy c. near 90 percent corporate support for “green causes” d. increased pollution levels e. the changing role of governments Page: 90 52. With respect to the shortage of raw materials, air and water are classified as resources. However, as we know, problems are beginning to plague both our air and water quality. a. infinite b. near finite c. finite renewable d. finite nonrenewable e. absolute Page: 90 107 Part 1: Defining Marketing and the Marketing Process 53. One finite nonrenewable resource, , has created serious problems for the world economy. Because of anticipated shortages, investment and commodity markets have had wild swings. a. water b. air c. sugar d. coffee e. oil Page: 90 54. From a branding perspective, “green marketing” programs have not been entirely successful. has been cited as one of the obstacles that must be overcome for “green marketing” programs to be more successful. a. Overexposure and lack of credibility b. High cost c. Poor promotions d. Resistance by the youth segment in the marketplace e. Lack of support by governmental agencies and concerns Page: 91 55. Which of the following countries is noted for their “green movement” and support within its government for environmental quality enhancement? a. Mexico b. China c. Germany d. England e. Italy Page: 91 56. The marketer should monitor the following trends in technology, EXCEPT , if progress is to be made in business. a. the pace of change b. the difficulties found in sharing information c. the opportunities for innovation d. varying R&D budgets e. increased regulation Page: 92 57. According to some industry analysts and inventors, will eventually eclipse the PC as our most important technological device. a. iPod b. HDTV c. holographic television d. the mobile phone e. solar-powered car Page: 92 58. All of the following will most likely be among the advantages for a society that embraces telecommuting as an employment/communication alternative EXCEPT . a. reduction of auto pollution 108 Chapter 1: Marketing: Managing Profitable Customer Relationships b. bringing the family closer together c. increased bonuses and compensation perks d. creating more home-centered shopping e. entertainment centered on the home environment Page: 92 59. legislation has as its purposes to protect companies from unfair competition, to protect consumers from unfair business practices, and to protect the interests of society from unbridled business behavior. a. Business b. Consumer c. Bi-partisan d. Activist e. Global Page: 94 60. An important force affecting business is the —a movement of citizens and government organized to strengthen the rights and powers of buyers in relation to sellers. a. lobbyist movement b. consumerist movement c. environmental movement d. self-rights movement e. ethical reform movement Page: 95 True/False 61. The major responsibility for identifying significant marketplace changes falls to the company’s marketers. Page: 72 62. Today, most firms are rather sophisticated about gathering information. Page: 72 63. A marketing information system is developed from internal company records, marketing intelligence, and promotional models supplied by the marketing department. Page: 73 109 Part 1: Defining Marketing and the Marketing Process 64. The heart of the internal records system is the bar code. Page: 73 65. According to principles found in database construction and usage, a “carpet bombing” mail out of a new offer is usually the most successful strategy. Page: 74 66. The internal records system supplies results data, but the marketing intelligence system supplies happenings data. Page: 74 67. If a company were pursuing a policy of networking externally it might collect competitors’ ads or look up news stories about competitors. Page: 75 68. One of the ways to find relevant online information on competitors’ strengths and weaknesses might be to frequent distributor or sales agent feedback sites. Page: 76 69. A style is unpredictable, short-lived, and without social, economic, and political significance. Page: 77 70. A megatrend has been described as being what follows all fads that stay on the market at least one year. Page: 77 71. One of the ten significant megatrends that will impact marketing efforts in the future is delayed retirement. Page: 78 72. Microenvironmental forces have been labeled as being “uncontrollable.” Page: 78 73. The main demographic force that marketers monitor is population. Page: 79 74. If the world were a village of 1,000 people, it would consist of 520 men and 480 women. Page: 79 75. A growing population always means a growing market. Page: 80 76. Japan has one of the world’s oldest populations. Page: 80 77. According to population studies, Gen X (numbering 72 million) is almost the same size as the huge baby boomer market. Page: 81 110 Chapter 1: Marketing: Managing Profitable Customer Relationships 78. At present the largest minority in the United States is the Latinos with 13 percent of the total population. Page: 81 79. In the United States, 10 to 15 percent of the population may be functionally illiterate. Page: 83 80. Based on research done in England, a conclusion drawn about families is that “friends are the new family.” Page: 83 81. According to studies of minority markets, the disabled market is ten times more likely to be in a professional job, almost twice as likely to own a vacation home, eight times more likely to own a notebook computer, and twice as likely to own individual stocks as compared to the general population. Page: 84 82. Urban markets are once again growing because of higher birth rates, a lower death rate, and rapid growth from foreign immigration. Page: 84 83. The small office—home office segment of our society has grown to nearly 40 million; thereby, boosting the sales of electronic conveniences and ready to assemble furniture. Page: 85 84. Almost one in two people over the age of five (120 million) moved at least one time between 1995 and 2000, according to a Census 2000 brief. Page: 85 85. Available purchasing power in an economy depends on mainly one facet—supply and demand. Page: 85 86. A good illustration of a raw-material exporting economy is Egypt. Page: 86 87. Conventional retailers who offer medium-priced goods are the most vulnerable to the growing trend in the United States called a two-tier market. Page: 86 88. Through outsourcing, companies can feasibly cut between 20 to 70 percent of their labor costs. Page: 87 89. “Pleasure seekers” of the 1970s had their beliefs, values, and norms shaped by views of others. Pages: 87–88 111 Part 1: Defining Marketing and the Marketing Process 90. If a single person has a home entertainment system that is rich in television capabilities and home video games, he or she may be using such a system as a “social surrogate.” Page: 88 91. In recent years, because of a tough job market, there has been an increasing amount of organizational loyalty among most employees. Page: 88 92. If a young college student decides to join the military to defend the principles of his or her country, the student would be classified as a “changer.” Page: 88 93. Most Americans still believe in getting married as a core belief. Page: 88 94. Teenagers would be a good example of a culture in the United States. Page: 89 95. Marketers need to be aware of the threats and opportunities associated with the trend toward increased pollution levels. Page: 90 96. Research studies have shown that consumers as a whole may not be willing to pay a premium for environmental benefits. Page: 91 97. Every new technology is a force for “creative destruction.” Page: 92 98. Virtual reality is giving consumers what they dream about. Page: 93 99. One of the major trends in the political-legal environment is the trend toward the growth of special interest groups. Page: 93 100. Today, customers are still willing to swap personal information for customized products from firms. Page: 95 Essay 101. Describe a marketing information system (MIS). From what sources is the MIS developed? Suggested marketing information system (MIS) consists of people, equipment, and procedures to gather, sort, analyze, evaluate, and distribute needed, timely, and accurate information to marketing decision makers. A 112 Chapter 1: Marketing: Managing Profitable Customer Relationships marketing information system is developed from internal company records, marketing intelligence activities, and marketing research. Page: 73 102. Describe the order-to-payment cycle and why it is important to internal records information keeping. 103. What are the various steps to improve the quality of its marketing intelligence function that can be taken by a company? 113 Part 1: Defining Marketing and the Marketing Process 104. List and briefly describe the four main ways marketers can find relevant online information on competitors’ strengths and weaknesses, and summary comments and overall performance rating of a product, service, or supplier. Page: 77 105. What is a “megatrend”? Briefly describe five megatrends shaping the consumer landscape. Pages: 77–78 106. What is the main demographic force monitored by marketers? Why? 107. Describe the two dominant “household patterns” in the last 50 years. 114 Chapter 1: Marketing: Managing Profitable Customer Relationships 108. People absorb, almost unconsciously, a worldview that defines their relationships. List and describe the “views” that assist or retard this relationship development process. 109. Describe the differences between a core belief and a secondary belief. List the primary core beliefs of Americans as revealed by the text. 110. Many marketers have tried and failed with “green sales pitches” (appeals to o

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MKT 530 All Questions and Answers. 100% correct MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1) As the manager of an organization that is attempting to build a Marketing Information System (MIS), you have been informed that a MIS is built upon three fundamental information sources. The sources are ________, marketing intelligence activities, and marketing research. A) external records and documents B) databases found on the Internet C) consultant reports D) internal company records E) secondary data from government sources such as the Better Business Bureau 2) The company\'s marketing information system should be a mix of what managers think they need, what managers really need, and ________. A) what the marketing research department is able to do B) what consumers are willing to consume C) what the government policies allow D) what is acceptable at the industry level E) what is economically feasible Diff: 0 Page Ref: 91 Objective: 1 AACSB: Difficulty: Moderate 3) The heart of the internal records system is the ________. A) pay-roll system B) purchase order cycle C) order-to-payment cycle D) expense cycle E) human resources system Diff: 0 Page Ref: 92 Objective: 2 AACSB: Difficulty: Moderate 4) The ________ begins with sales representatives and dealers sending orders to the firms and is followed by the sales department preparing invoices, and finally generating shipping and billing documents which are then sent to various departments. A) payroll system B) market research process C) human resources system D) expense cycle E) order-to-payment cycle Diff: 0 Page Ref: 92 Objective: 2 AACSB: Difficulty: Moderate 5) By equipping its sales force with handheld devices with bar-code readers and Internet connections to speed inventory assessment, TaylorMade allows sales executives to have significantly more time to interact with their consumers. This is an example of the use of technology in improving ________. A) sales information systems B) payroll systems C) cookies D) cohort segmentation E) competitive intelligence gathering Diff: 0 Page Ref: 92 Objective: 2 AACSB: Use of IT Difficulty: Moderate 6) Companies can practice targeted marketing by using ________–records of Web site usage stored on personal browsers. A) plug-ins B) black swans C) cookies D) trolls E) honey-pot Diff: 0 Page Ref: 92 Objective: 2 AACSB: Use of IT Difficulty: Easy 7) The internal records system supplies results data, but the marketing intelligence system supplies ________ data. A) internal B) revenue C) thematic D) happenings E) process Diff: 0 Page Ref: 93 Objective: 3 AACSB: Difficulty: Easy 8) A ________ is a set of procedures and sources managers use to obtain everyday information about developments in the marketing environment. A) data warehousing system B) viral marketing campaign C) product management system D) marketing intelligence system E) sales information system Diff: 0 Page Ref: 93 Objective: 3 AACSB: Difficulty: Moderate 9) A company can take several steps to improve the quality of its marketing intelligence. Which of the following best describes the practice used by McDonald\'s when it sent pseudo customers to assess stores\' internal speed standards? A) training and motivating the sales force to spot and report new developments B) motivating intermediaries to pass along important intelligence C) networking externally D) purchasing information from outside research firms and vendors E) using the sales information system to get accurate sales reports Diff: 0 Page Ref: 94 Objective: 3 AACSB: Analytic skills Difficulty: Moderate 10) A company can take several steps to improve the quality of its marketing intelligence. If the company purchases competitive products for study, attends open houses and trade shows, and reads competitors\' published reports and stockholder information, the company is using ________ to improve the quality of its marketing intelligence. A) sales-force surrogates B) intermediaries C) external networks D) advisory panels E) customer feedback systems Diff: 0 Page Ref: 94 Objective: 3 AACSB: Difficulty: Difficult 11) When gathering marketing intelligence, companies often use the 2000 U.S. census, which provides an in-depth look at the population swings, demographic groups, regional migrations, and changing family structure of 281 million people. Which of the following steps to improve the quality of a company marketing intelligence system would be most closely associated with this illustration? A) A company can purchase information from outside suppliers. B) A company can take advantage of government data sources. C) A company can use online customer feedback systems to collect data. D) A company can network externally. E) A company can use its sales force to collect and report data. Diff: 0 Page Ref: 94 Objective: 3 AACSB: Difficulty: Moderate 12) When a company acquires consumer-panel data from firms like A.C. Nielsen Company and Information Resources Inc., which of the following steps to improve the quality of a company marketing intelligence system is the company resorting to? A) training and motivating the sales force to spot and report new developments B) motivating distributors, retailers, and other intermediaries to pass along important intelligence C) hiring external experts to collect intelligence D) using external network E) purchasing information from outside research firms and vendors Diff: 0 Page Ref: 94 Objective: 3 AACSB: Difficulty: Moderate 13) E is a service provider that allows contractors to describe their level of satisfaction with subcontractors. This is an example of a(n) ________. A) independent customer goods and service review forum B) public blog C) customer complaint site D) combo site offering customer reviews and expert opinions E) distributor or sales agent feedback site Diff: 0 Page Ref: 95 Objective: 3 AACSB: Use of IT Difficulty: Moderate 14) The sites which offer positive or negative product or service reviews and are built by the retailers of a particular product or service are called ________. A) combo sites B) distributor or sales agent feedback sites C) public blogs D) independent service review forums E) customer complaint sites Diff: 0 Page Ref: 95 Objective: 3 AACSB: Use of IT Difficulty: Easy 15) A ________ is \"unpredictable, short-lived, and without social, economic, and political significance.\" A) fad B) fashion C) trend D) megatrend E) style Diff: 0 Page Ref: 96 Objective: 4 AACSB: Difficulty: Easy 16) A ________ is a direction or sequence of events that has some momentum and durability; it reveals the shape of the future and can provide strategic direction. A) fad B) fashion C) trend D) megatrend E) style Diff: 0 Page Ref: 96 Objective: 4 AACSB: Difficulty: Easy 17) A ________ is a \"large social, economic, political, and technological change that is slow to form, and once in place, influences us for some time—between seven and ten years, or longer.\" A) fad B) fashion C) trend D) megatrend E) style Diff: 0 Page Ref: 96 Objective: 4 AACSB: Difficulty: Easy 18) Which of the following is true about trends in worldwide population growth? A) Birthrates are on the rise in developed countries. B) Overall, the world population growth is declining. C) Birthrates are on the rise in developing countries. D) Death rates are rising in developing countries. E) Population growth is highest in developing countries. Diff: 0 Page Ref: 97 Objective: 4 AACSB: Difficulty: Easy 19) A growing population does not mean growing markets unless ________. A) the people are under a democratic system of government B) there is common ownership of all resources C) people have sufficient purchasing power D) there is adequate governmental intervention in the market E) the government has a budget surplus Diff: 0 Page Ref: 97 Objective: 4 AACSB: Difficulty: Moderate 20) In the U.S., people born between the years ________ are called boomers. A) 1978 and 2002 B) 1946 and 1964 C) 1925 and 1945 D) 1965 and 1985 E) 1920 and 1940 Diff: 0 Page Ref: 97 Objective: 4 AACSB: Difficulty: Easy 21) Firms find \"reverse innovation\" advantage by ________. A) introducing a commodity in a developed country and then distributing it globally B) introducing a commodity in a developing country and then distributing it in other developing countries C) introducing a commodity in a developing country and then distributing it globally D) introducing a commodity in a developed country and then distributing it in developing countries E) introducing a commodity in a developed country and then distributing it in other developed countries Diff: 0 Page Ref: 98 Objective: 4 AACSB: Difficulty: Moderate 22) ________ refer to groups of individuals who are born during the same time period and travel through life together. A) Cohorts B) Populations C) Clans D) Societies E) Ethnic groups Diff: 0 Page Ref: 98 Objective: 4 AACSB: Difficulty: Easy 23) According to the 2000 Census, which of the following is the largest group in the United States? A) Whites B) Hispanics C) African Americans D) Chinese Americans E) Asian Indians Diff: 0 Page Ref: 98 Objective: 4 AACSB: Difficulty: Easy 24) The three largest subgroups of the Hispanics in the U.S. are ________, ________, and ________. A) Puerto Rican; Mexican; Chilean B) Salvadoran; Cuban; Dominican C) Mexican; Puerto Rican; Cuban D) Brazilian; Mexican; Cuban E) Salvadoran; Dominican; Columbian Diff: 0 Page Ref: 98 Objective: 4 AACSB: Difficulty: Easy 25) Which of the following is true about the growth of the Hispanic population in the U.S.? A) Hispanics made up 11 percent of all new workers in the past decade. B) The disposable income of Hispanics has not grown as fast as that of the rest of the population. C) Hispanics now outnumber African Americans in the U.S. D) Family incomes of Hispanics have grown at a rate double that of the rest of the population. E) Hispanics are the fastest growing consumer group in the U.S. Diff: 0 Page Ref: 99 Objective: 4 AACSB: Difficulty: Easy 26) The traditional household consists of ________. A) a husband, wife, and children (and sometimes grandparents) B) a group of related persons living together C) two or more families living together D) a man and a woman living together (whether married or not) E) related or unrelated persons who share living arrangements Diff: 0 Page Ref: 99 Objective: 4 AACSB: Difficulty: Easy 27) By 2010, projections indicate that the largest category of households will be composed of ________. A) childless married couples and empty nesters B) single-parent families C) single live-alones D) singles living with nonrelatives E) married couples with children Diff: 0 Page Ref: 99 Objective: 4 AACSB: Difficulty: Moderate 28) Which of the following is likely to occur during economic downturns? A) People tend to spend more on luxury goods B) Consumption of necessary goods decline C) Long term credit is available at concessional rates of interest D) The purchasing power of the people declines E) The level of investment in the economy rises Diff: 0 Page Ref: 99 Objective: 4 AACSB: Dynamics of the global economy Difficulty: Moderate 29) Which of the following economies provide limited opportunities to international marketers to develop product sales? A) capitalist economies B) subsistence economies C) raw-materials-exporting economies D) industrializing economies E) industrialized economies Diff: 0 Page Ref: 100 Objective: 4 AACSB: Difficulty: Easy 30) In response to the U.S. income distribution trend toward ________, Levi-Strauss introduced premium Levi\'s Capital E line to upscale retailers and the economy Levi Strauss Signature line to mass-market retailers. A) very low incomes B) mostly low incomes C) mostly high incomes D) mostly medium incomes E) low and high incomes Diff: 0 Page Ref: 100 Objective: 4 AACSB: Analytic skills Difficulty: Difficult 31) In the U.S., consumer expenditures on homes and big ticket items tend to slacken during recessions because ________. A) the consumers generally have a low debt-to-income ratio B) of steady supply of loanable funds in the economy during recession C) the consumers have a high debt-to-income ratio D) consumer borrowing increases during recession E) of stringent credit policies adopted by the Fed before the onset of recession Diff: 0 Page Ref: 100 Objective: 4 AACSB: Difficulty: Moderate 32) Which of the following elements of sociocultural environment can be associated with the growing demand for \"social surrogates\" like social networking sites, television, etc? A) views of ourselves B) views of organizations C) views of others D) views of nature E) views of the universe Diff: 0 Page Ref: 100 Objective: 4 AACSB: Difficulty: Moderate 33) Today, corporations need to make sure that they are good corporate citizens and that their consumer messages are honest in order to positively align themselves with consumers\' ________. A) views of others B) views of organizations C) views of themselves D) views of the universe E) views of society Diff: 0 Page Ref: 101 Objective: 4 AACSB: Reflective thinking Difficulty: Moderate 34) People vary in their views of society and their consumption patterns often reflect their social attitudes. ________ usually live more frugally, drive smaller cars, and wear simpler clothing. A) Makers B) Escapers C) Seekers D) Changers E) Developers Diff: 0 Page Ref: 101 Objective: 4 AACSB: Difficulty: Moderate 35) People vary in their views of society and their consumption patterns often reflect their social attitudes. ________ usually eat, dress, and live well. A) Makers B) Escapers C) Seekers D) Changers E) Developers Diff: 0 Page Ref: 101 Objective: 4 AACSB: Difficulty: Moderate 36) People vary in their views of society and their consumption patterns often reflect their social attitudes. ________ are a major market for movies, music, surfing, and camping. A) Makers B) Preservers C) Escapers D) Changers E) Developers Diff: 0 Page Ref: 101 Objective: 4 AACSB: Difficulty: Moderate 37) ________ beliefs and values are passed from parents to children and reinforced by social institutions—schools, churches, businesses, and governments; they are very difficult to change. A) Transient B) Secondary C) Protected D) Core E) Variable Diff: 0 Page Ref: 101 Objective: 4 AACSB: Difficulty: Moderate 38) Which of the following would be the best illustration of a secondary belief or value? A) belief in work B) belief in giving to charity C) belief in getting married D) belief in getting married early E) belief in being honest Answer: D Diff: 0 Page Ref: 101 Objective: 4 AACSB: Difficulty: Moderate 39) Each society contains ________, groups with shared values emerging from their special life experiences or circumstances. A) stakeholders B) cliques C) consumer bundles D) subcultures E) behavioral niches Diff: 0 Page Ref: 102 Objective: 4 AACSB: Difficulty: Easy 40) Which of the following is the largest contributor to global warming, contributing almost a quarter of the carbon dioxide in the environment? A) transportation B) industrial production facilities C) electrical power plants D) aerosol cans E) rural cooking fires Diff: 0 Page Ref: 102 Objective: 4 AACSB: Difficulty: Easy 41) Which of the following is the second largest contributor to global warming, accounting for roughly a fifth of carbon emissions? A) transportation B) primary metal production facilities C) electrical power plants D) aerosol cans E) rural cooking fires Diff: 0 Page Ref: 102 Objective: 4 AACSB: Difficulty: Easy 42) Firms whose products require ________ resources—oil, coal, platinum, zinc, silver—face substantial cost increases as depletion approaches. A) infinite B) near finite C) finite renewable D) finite nonrenewable E) perishable Diff: 0 Page Ref: 103 Objective: 4 AACSB: Difficulty: Easy 43) Prestige LLC, a small company that manufactures specialty cereals and energy bars, wants to launch a \"green marketing\" program in response to heightened consumer awareness about environmental issues. What should the company do to maximize the program\'s chances of being successful? A) demonstrate that the products will benefit both customers and the society in the long-term B) emphasize benefits to the consumer rather than environmental benefits C) focus on the efforts and costs incurred by the company to bring these \"green\" products to consumers D) engage in \"greenwashing\" to highlight the environmental benefits of the product E) explain the rules and regulations laid out by governmental agencies to protect the environment Diff: 0 Page Ref: 104 Objective: 4 AACSB: Analytic skills Difficulty: Difficult 44) When a company is said to have engaged in \"greenwashing,\" it means that ________. A) the company has significantly changed its business processes to incorporate a greener, more environmentally friendly philosophy B) the company has moved its production facilities to countries where environmental laws and regulations are less rigorous C) the company has changed its \"green\" image in order to appeal to a different, usually older, demographic D) the company\'s products are not nearly as green and environmentally beneficial as its marketing might suggest E) the company has undertaken a campaign to lobby for tougher environmental regulations for the industry Ref: 104 Objective: 4 AACSB: Difficulty: Easy 45) Which of the following consumer environmental segments cares a great deal about the environment, but doesn\'t seem to have the knowledge or resources to take action? A) not me greens B) business first greens C) mean greens D) go-with-the-flow greens E) dream greens Diff: 0 Page Ref: 104 Objective: 4 AACSB: Difficulty: Easy 46) The consumer environmental segment termed ________ holds the view that the environment is not a huge concern and that business and industry is doing its part to help. This may explain why they don\'t feel the need to take action themselves—even as they cite lots of barriers to doing so. They are also the largest consumer environmental segment. A) not me greens B) business first greens C) mean greens D) go-with-the-flow greens E) dream greens Diff: 0 Page Ref: 104 Objective: 4 AACSB: Difficulty: Easy 47) The consumer environmental segment termed ________ claims to be knowledgeable about environmental issues, but does not express pro-green attitudes or behaviors. Indeed, it is practically hostile toward pro-environmental ideas. This segment has chosen to reject prevailing notions about environmental protection and may even be viewed as a potential threat to green initiatives. A) not me greens B) business first greens C) mean greens D) go-with-the-flow greens E) dream greens Diff: 0 Page Ref: 104 Objective: 4 AACSB: Difficulty: Easy 48) Which of the following is true about the technology trends that marketers should monitor? A) A growing portion of U.S. R&D expenditures are going toward the research side as opposed to the development side. B) Today, the time between idea and implementation is expanding. C) More single companies rather than consortiums are directing research efforts toward major breakthroughs. D) The pace of change is accelerating today. E) The government has decreased regulation of technological change. Answer: D Diff: 0 Page Ref: 105-106 Objective: 4 AACSB: Difficulty: Moderate 49) Mandatory recycling laws have boosted the recycling industry and launched dozens of new companies making new products from recycled materials. Which of the following most closely resembles the situation discussed above? A) Government makes reforestation mandatory for lumbering firms leading to a rise in timber production. B) Government restricts industries from purchasing farmland thereby increasing agricultural produce. C) Government subsidizes export of beef to promote production of beef cattle. D) Government pollution control norms increase the production of pollution control equipment. E) Government restricts unfair trade practices to promote international trade. Answer: D Diff: 0 Page Ref: 106 Objective: 4 AACSB: Analytic skills Difficulty: Difficult 50) An unintended effect of business legislation is ________. A) restricting fair competition in the market B) encouraging unbridled business behavior C) reducing the social cost of producing a particular commodity D) exposing consumers to unfair trade practices E) slowing economic growth Answer: E Diff: 0 Page Ref: 106 Objective: 4 AACSB: Difficulty: Moderate 51) An important force affecting business is the ________ movement, a movement of citizens and government organized to strengthen the rights and powers of buyers in relation to sellers. A) human rights B) consumerist C) environmental D) self-determination E) materialistic Answer: B Diff: 0 Page Ref: 106 Objective: 4 AACSB: Difficulty: Easy 52) Companies can prepare as many as ________ different types of demand estimates. A) 6 B) 30 C) 60 D) 90 E) 150 Answer: D Diff: 0 Page Ref: 107 Objective: 5 AACSB: Difficulty: Easy 53) The demand estimates of an organization comprise of five space levels. They are world, country, region, territory, and ________. A) zone B) organization C) customer D) product E) input Answer: C Diff: 0 Page Ref: 107 Objective: 5 AACSB: Difficulty: Easy 54) The ________ market is the set of consumers with an adequate interest, income, and access to a particular offer. A) potential B) available C) target D) penetrated E) reserve Answer: B Diff: 0 Page Ref: 107 Objective: 5 AACSB: Difficulty: Easy 55) The ________ market is the part of the qualified available market the company decides to pursue. A) potential B) available C) target D) penetrated E) reserve Answer: C Diff: 0 Page Ref: 107 Objective: 5 AACSB: Difficulty: Easy 56) The ________ market is the set of consumers who are buying the company\'s product. A) potential B) available C) target D) penetrated E) reserve Answer: D Diff: 0 Page Ref: 107 Objective: 5 AACSB: Difficulty: Easy 57) When the government of any country restricts the sale of a particular commodity to certain groups—for example, restricting sales of alcohol to individuals above the age of 21—the eligible consumers who have income, interest, access and qualification constitute the ________. A) accessible market B) target market C) potential market D) qualified potential market E) qualified available market Answer: E Diff: 0 Page Ref: 107 Objective: 5 AACSB: Difficulty: Easy 58) Jeanine would like to own a Mercedes but is unable to afford one at this time. Jeanine is part of the ________ for this product. A) potential market B) available market C) target market D) projected market E) penetrated market Answer: A Diff: 0 Page Ref: 107 Objective: 5 AACSB: Analytic skills Difficulty: Moderate 59) ________ for a product is the total volume that would be bought by a defined customer group in a defined geographical area in a defined time period in a defined marketing environment under a defined marketing program. A) Company demand B) Area market potential C) Market demand D) Company sales potential E) Total market potential Answer: C Diff: 0 Page Ref: 108 Objective: 5 AACSB: Difficulty: Easy 60) With an increase in marketing expenditure, market demand ________. A) continues to increase at an increasing rate B) initially increases and then declines C) increases first at an increasing rate, then at a decreasing rate D) decreases first and then spikes E) continues to increase at a decreasing rate. Answer: C Diff: 0 Page Ref: 108 Objective: 5 AACSB: Difficulty: Moderate 61) The base sales of an organization that takes place even without any demand-stimulating expenditures is called ________. A) primary demand B) market potential C) market minimum D) optimum demand E) market demand Answer: C Diff: 0 Page Ref: 108 Objective: 5 AACSB: Difficulty: Easy 62) The distance between the market minimum and the market potential shows the overall ________. A) marketing sensitivity of demand B) market share of the firm C) market forecast of the firm D) product-penetration percentage E) sales quota Answer: A Diff: 0 Page Ref: 108 Objective: 5 AACSB: Difficulty: Easy 63) A low market-penetration index indicates ________. A) it will be expensive for the firms to attract the few remaining prospects B) substantial growth potential for all firms C) the rival firms try to capture greater market share by lowering their product price D) the profit margins of the firms decline E) the firms cannot raise demand substantially by raising its market expenditure Answer: B Diff: 0 Page Ref: 108 Objective: 5 AACSB: Difficulty: Moderate 64) Only one level of industry marketing expenditure will actually occur. The market demand corresponding to this level is called the ________. A) market minimum B) market share C) market forecast D) market potential E) company demand Answer: C Diff: 0 Page Ref: 109 Objective: 5 AACSB: Difficulty: Easy 65) A company can expect to expand its market share to a large extent when ________. A) it has a high market-penetration index B) its share-penetration index is low C) its share-penetration index is high D) its product-penetration percentage is high E) it has a low market potential Answer: B Diff: 0 Page Ref: 109 Objective: 5 AACSB: Difficulty: Moderate 66) During recession, the market demand curve which is a function of marketing expenditure ________. A) shifts upward B) becomes vertical C) remains unaffected D) shifts downward E) slopes downward Answer: D Diff: 0 Page Ref: 109 Objective: 5 AACSB: Dynamics of the global economy Difficulty: Difficult 67) The sales goal set for a product line, company division, or sales representative of an organization is called ________. A) sales budget B) company sales forecast C) sales quota D) company sales potential E) market potential Answer: C Diff: 0 Page Ref: 109 Objective: 5 AACSB: Difficulty: Easy 68) A ________ is a conservative estimate of the expected volume of sales, primarily for making current purchasing, production, and cash flow decisions. A) sales budget B) company sales forecast C) sales quota D) company sales potential E) market potential Answer: A Diff: 0 Page Ref: 109 Objective: 5 AACSB: Difficulty: Easy 69) ________ is the limit approached by market demand as industry marketing expenditures approach infinity for a given marketing environment. A) Sales budget B) Company sales forecast C) Sales quota D) Company sales potential E) Market potential Answer: E Diff: 0 Page Ref: 109 Objective: 5 AACSB: Difficulty: Easy 70) ________ is the company\'s estimated share of market demand at alternative levels of company marketing effort in a given time period. A) Sales budget B) Market demand C) Company demand D) Company sales potential E) Market potential Answer: C Diff: 0 Page Ref: 109 Objective: 5 AACSB: Difficulty: Easy 71) ________ is the sales limit approached by company demand as company marketing effort increases relative to that of competitors. A) Sales budget B) Market demand C) Company demand D) Company sales potential E) Market potential Answer: D Diff: 0 Page Ref: 109 Objective: 5 AACSB: Difficulty: Easy 72) A company\'s sales potential would be equal to market potential if ________. A) the marketing expenditure of the company is reduced to zero B) industry marketing expenditures approach infinity for a given marketing environment C) the market is non-expandable D) market minimum is equal to market potential E) the company gets 100 percent share of the market Answer: E Diff: 0 Page Ref: 109 Objective: 5 AACSB: Difficulty: Moderate 73) ________ is the maximum sales available to all firms in an industry during a given period, under a given level of industry marketing effort and environmental conditions. A) Company demand B) Market demand C) Company sales potential D) Sales quota E) Total market potential Answer: E Diff: 0 Page Ref: 110 Objective: 5 AACSB: Difficulty: Easy 74) Suppose an individual buyer purchases three pairs of shoes each year at $50 each pair and that there are 50 million such consumers in the economy. Compute the total market potential for shoes. A) $6,500 million B) $5,000 million C) $75 billion D) $7,500 million E) $10,000 million Answer: D Diff: 0 Page Ref: 110 Objective: 5 AACSB: Difficulty: Easy 75) The ________ method of determining area market potential calls for identifying all the potential buyers in each market and estimating their potential purchases. A) group-discussion B) market-test C) market-buildup D) brand development index E) multiple-factor index Answer: C Diff: 0 Page Ref: 110 Objective: 5 AACSB: Difficulty: Easy 76) An efficient method of estimating area market potentials makes use of the ________, developed by the U.S. Bureau of the Census in conjunction with the Canadian and Mexican governments. It classifies all manufacturing into 20 major industry sectors and further breaks each sector into a six-digit, hierarchical structure. A) Thomson Reuters Business Classification B) Global Industrial Classification Standard C) North American Product Classification System D) Industry Classification Benchmark E) North American Industry Classification System Answer: E Diff: 0 Page Ref: 110 Objective: 5 AACSB: Difficulty: Easy 77) Which of the following organizations is likely to use the multiple-factor index method to estimate the market potential? A) a firm that manufactures auto parts B) a firm that provides facility management services to large offices C) a company that provides Web site development services for small businesses D) a company that manufactures diagnostic machines for hospitals E) a firm that manufactures fashionable clothes for teenagers Answer: E Diff: 0 Page Ref: 110 Objective: 5 AACSB: Analytic skills Difficulty: Moderate 78) Which of the following is true of the various elements of the multi-factor index method of estimating area market potentials? A) Zip 4 code centers generally have stable boundaries and a population of about 4000. B) The weights in the buying-power index are somewhat arbitrary. C) Normally, the lower the BDI, the less room there is to grow the brand. D) Census tracts are a little larger than neighborhoods. E) This method is primarily used by business marketers. Answer: B Diff: 0 Page Ref: 111 Objective: 5 AACSB: Difficulty: Easy 79) Suppose Concrete Express, a cement manufacturing firm, finds that its sales have increased by 3 percent this year, while industry sales have increased by 5 percent. This implies that ________. A) Concrete Express has acquired additional market share in relation to the cement industry B) Concrete Express is losing its relative standing in the cement industry C) other players in the industry are losing market share D) the absolute market share of Concrete Express has declined E) Concrete Express\'s position in relation to the industry has remain unchanged Answer: B Diff: 0 Page Ref: 112 Objective: 5 AACSB: Analytic skills Difficulty: Moderate 80) For which of the following categories of products will demand forecasting be easiest? A) commodities which are in the initial stage of their product life cycles B) products which have many close substitutes in the market C) goods which are produced in an oligopoly market D) products whose sales fluctuate widely E) products whose consumers are highly sensitive to change in price Answer: C Diff: 0 Page Ref: 112 Objective: 5 AACSB: Difficulty: Moderate 81) Novamalt Inc., a manufacturer of health drinks, plans to introduce its new range of woman health drinks into the market. It involves a specialized marketing research firm to forecast the sales of this product. The research firm analyzes past buying behavior of customers and uses time-series analysis for making the sales forecasts. Which of the following information bases is being used by the research firm in this scenario? A) what people say B) what people do C) what people have done D) what people will do E) what people speculate Answer: C Diff: 0 Page Ref: 112 Objective: 5 AACSB: Analytic skills Difficulty: Moderate 82) Timeseries analysis method of forecasting sales breaks past time series into four components- trend, cycle, seasonal, and ________. A) regular B) annual C) erratic D) recurring E) periodic Answer: C Diff: 0 Page Ref: 113 Objective: 5 AACSB: Difficulty: Easy 83) ________ projects the next period\'s sales by combining an average of past sales and the most recent sales, giving more weight to the latter. A) Timeseries analysis B) Statistical demand analysis C) Econometric analysis D) Cost effectiveness analysis E) Exponential smoothing Answer: E Diff: 0 Page Ref: 113 Objective: 5 AACSB: Difficulty: Easy 84) ________ measures the impact of a set of causal factors (such as income, marketing expenditures, and price) on the sales level. A) Timeseries analysis B) Statistical demand analysis C) Econometric analysis D) Cost effectiveness analysis E) Exponential smoothing Answer: B Diff: 0 Page Ref: 113 Objective: 5 AACSB: Difficulty: Easy 85) The sales forecasting method of ________ builds sets of equations that describe a system and statistically derives the different parameters that make up the equations statistically. A) timeseries analysis B) statistical demand analysis C) econometric analysis D) cost effectiveness analysis E) exponential smoothing Answer: C Diff: 0 Page Ref: 113 Objective: 5 AACSB: Difficulty: Easy TRUE/FALSE. Write \'T\' if the statement is true and \'F\' if the statement is false. 86) Marketers have little information about how consumption patterns vary across and within countries. Answer: True False Diff: 0 Page Ref: 90 Objective: 1 AACSB: Difficulty: Easy 87) Companies with superior information enjoy a competitive advantage. Answer: True False Diff: 0 Page Ref: 91 Objective: 1 AACSB: Difficulty: Easy 88) Many firms use the Internet and extranets to improve the speed, accuracy, and efficiency of the order-to-payment cycle. Answer: True False Diff: 0 Page Ref: 92 Objective: 2 AACSB: Difficulty: Easy 89) Few consumers actually delete cookies frequently. When customers do not delete cookies, they expect customized marketing appeals and deals. Answer: True False Diff: 0 Page Ref: 92 Objective: 2 AACSB: Difficulty: Moderate 90) Mailing of a new offer to a handful of selected customers instead of all customers reduces the response rate to the offer. Answer: True False Diff: 0 Page Ref: 93 Objective: 2 AACSB: Difficulty: Moderate 91) Competitive intelligence gathering is inherently illegal and unethical. Answer: True False Diff: 0 Page Ref: 94 Objective: 3 AACSB: Difficulty: Easy 92) If a company were pursuing a policy of networking externally to gather marketing intelligence, it might collect competitors\' ads or look up news stories about competitors. Answer: True False Diff: 0 Page Ref: 94 Objective: 3 AACSB: Difficulty: Easy 93) One of the ways to find relevant online information on competitors\' strengths and weaknesses might be to frequent distributor or sales agent feedback sites. Answer: True False Diff: 0 Page Ref: 95 Objective: 3 AACSB: Difficulty: Easy 94) The competitive intelligence function works best when it is closely coordinated with the decision-making process. Answer: True False Diff: 0 Page Ref: 95 Objective: 3 AACSB: Difficulty: Easy 95) A fad is more predictable and durable than a trend. Answer: True False Diff: 0 Page Ref: 96 Objective: 3 AACSB: Difficulty: Easy 96) A new market opportunity generally guarantees success, if the new product is technically feasible. Answer: True False Diff: 0 Page Ref: 96 Objective: 4 AACSB: Difficulty: Moderate 97) Demographic developments are often unpredictable. Answer: True False Diff: 0 Page Ref: 97 Objective: 4 AACSB: Difficulty: Easy 98) Population growth is highest in countries and communities that can least afford it. Answer: True False Diff: 0 Page Ref: 97 Objective: 4 AACSB: Difficulty: Easy 99) There is a global trend toward an aging population. Answer: True False Diff: 0 Page Ref: 97 Objective: 4 AACSB: Difficulty: Easy 100) The basis of cohort segmentation is that the experiences of key defining moments during the time when an individual becomes an adult can influence his or her values, preferences, and buying behaviors for the rest of his or her life. Answer: True False Diff: 0 Page Ref: 98 Objective: 4 AACSB: Difficulty: Easy 101) Marketing strategies of firms should not consider the ethnic and racial diversity existing in their markets. Answer: True False Diff: 0 Page Ref: 99 Objective: 4 AACSB: Difficulty: Easy 102) Consumers belonging to the same ethnic group have identical tastes and preferences. Answer: True False Diff: 0 Page Ref: 99 Objective: 4 AACSB: Difficulty: Easy 103) Of all illiterate adults in the world, two-thirds are women. Answer: True False Diff: 0 Page Ref: 99 Objective: 4 AACSB: Difficulty: Easy 104) Households comprising of single, separated, widowed, and divorced individuals generally demand larger apartments, and expensive appliances, furniture, and furnishings. Answer: True False Diff: 0 Page Ref: 99 Objective: 4 AACSB: Difficulty: Easy 105) The available purchasing power in an economy depends on current income, prices, savings, debt, and credit availability. Answer: True False Diff: 0 Page Ref: 99 Objective: 4 AACSB: Difficulty: Easy 106) Industrial economies provide limited marketing opportunities for luxurious goods. Answer: True False Diff: 0 Page Ref: 100 Objective: 4 AACSB: Difficulty: Easy 107) Markets with a segment of very wealthy consumers, but high income disparity, present few opportunities to marketers. Answer: True False Diff: 0 Page Ref: 100 Objective: 4 AACSB: Difficulty: Moderate 108) Business has responded to increased awareness of nature\'s fragility and finiteness by producing wider varieties of camping, hiking, boating, and fishing gear such as boots, tents, backpacks, and accessories. Answer: True False Diff: 0 Page Ref: 101 Objective: 4 AACSB: Difficulty: Easy 109) Secondary beliefs and values are passed on from parents to children and reinforced by major social institutions, making them very difficult to change by marketers. Answer: True False Diff: 0 Page Ref: 101 Objective: 4 AACSB: Difficulty: Moderate 110) Environmental regulations enforced by the government adversely affect automobile and steel manufacturing companies. Answer: True False Diff: 0 Page Ref: 102 Objective: 4 AACSB: Difficulty: Easy 111) Corporate environmentalism recognizes the need to integrate environmental issues into the firm\'s strategic plans. Answer: True False Diff: 0 Page Ref: 103 Objective: 4 AACSB: Difficulty: Easy 112) Firms that can develop substitute materials for finite nonrenewable resources have an excellent opportunity. Answer: True False Diff: 0 Page Ref: 103 Objective: 4 AACSB: Difficulty: Easy 113) The time between introduction of products and peak production is shrinking. Answer: True False Diff: 0 Page Ref: 105 Objective: 4 AACSB: Difficulty: Easy 114) A growing portion of U.S. R&D expenditures goes to the development as opposed to the research side. Answer: True False Diff: 0 Page Ref: 106 Objective: 4 AACSB: Difficulty: Easy 115) Regulation of technological changes has been relaxed by the U.S. government over recent years. Answer: True False Diff: 0 Page Ref: 106 Objective: 4 AACSB: Difficulty: Easy 116) Environmental laws imposed by the government may at times create new business opportunities. Answer: True False Diff: 0 Page Ref: 106 Objective: 4 AACSB: Difficulty: Easy 117) Demand estimates prepared by companies are based on four different time periods. Answer: True False Diff: 0 Page Ref: 107 Objective: 5 AACSB: Difficulty: Easy 118) The penetrated market is the set of consumers who have an interest in a market offer but do not have the accessibility. Answer: True False Diff: 0 Page Ref: 107 Objective: 5 AACSB: Difficulty: Easy 119) Market demand for a product is the total volume that would be bought by a defined customer group in a defined geographical area in a defined time period in a defined marketing environment under a defined marketing program. Answer: True False Diff: 0 Page Ref: 108 Objective: 5 AACSB: Difficulty: Easy 120) An expansible market is unlikely to be affected by the level of industry marketing expenditures. Answer: True False Diff: 0 Page Ref: 108 Objective: 5 AACSB: Difficulty: Easy 121) The market forecast shows expected market demand, not maximum market demand. Answer: True False Diff: 0 Page Ref: 109 Objective: 5 AACSB: Difficulty: Easy 122) Companies assume that the lower the product-penetration percentage, the lower will be the market potential. Answer: True False Diff: 0 Page Ref: 109 Objective: 5 AACSB: Difficulty: Moderate 123) In order to estimate future demand, companies commonly prepare a company sales forecast first, followed by an industry forecast, and finally a macroeconomic forecast. Answer: True False Diff: 0 Page Ref: 112 Objective: 5 AACSB: Difficulty: Moderate 124) Forecasting is the art of anticipating what buyers are likely to do under a given set of conditions. Answer: True False Diff: 0 Page Ref: 113 Objective: 5 AACSB: Difficulty: Easy 125) Sales reps might have better insight into developing trends than any other group, and forecasting might give them greater confidence in their sales quotas and more incentive to achieve them. Answer: True False Diff: 0 Page Ref: 113 Objective: 5 AACSB: Difficulty: Moderate ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper. 126) What is a marketing information system (MIS)? From what sources is the MIS developed? Answer: A marketing information system (MIS) consists of people, equipment, and procedures to gather, sort, analyze, evaluate, and distribute needed, timely, and accurate information to marketing decision makers. A marketing information system is developed from internal company records, marketing intelligence activities, and marketing research. Diff: 0 Page Ref: 91 Objective: 1 AACSB: Use of IT Difficulty: Easy 127) What is a marketing intelligence system? How can marketing intelligence data be collected? Answer: A marketing intelligence system is a set of procedures and sources that managers use to obtain everyday information about developments in the marketing environment. The marketing intelligence system supplies happenings data. Marketing managers collect marketing intelligence in a variety of different ways, such as by reading books, newspapers, and trade publications; talking to customers, suppliers, and distributors; monitoring social media on the Internet; and meeting with other company managers. Diff: 0 Page Ref: 93 Objective: 3 AACSB: Difficulty: Moderate 128) What are the various steps a company can take to improve the quality of its marketing intelligence function? Answer: The steps are: (1) a company can train and motivate the sales force to spot and report new developments; (2) a company can motivate distributors, retailers, and other intermediaries to pass along important intelligence; (3) a company can network externally; (4) a company can set up a customer advisory panel; (5) a company can take advantage of government data resources; (6) a company can purchase information from outside suppliers; and (7) a company can use online customer feedback systems to collect competitive intelligence. Diff: 0 Page Ref: 94 Objective: 3 AACSB: Difficulty: Moderate 129) List and briefly describe the five main ways in which marketers can find relevant online information on competitors\' strengths and weaknesses. Answer: The five ways are: (1) independent customer goods and service review forums; (2) distributor or sales agent feedback sites which are built by the distributors themselves to describe their experience and level of satisfaction on products or services; (3) combo sites offering customer reviews and expert opinions mainly on financial services and high-tech products that require professional knowledge; (4) customer complaint sites designed mainly for dissatisfied customers, which allows customers to express their dissatisfaction in certain firms or products; and (5) public blogs offering personal opinions, reviews, ratings and recommendations on virtually any topic. Diff: 0 Page Ref: 95 Objective: 3 AACSB: Use of IT Difficulty: Moderate 130) How are household patterns anticipated to change over the next few years? What will be the impact of such changes on the demand for different goods? Answer: By 2010, only one in five U.S. households will consist of married couples with children under the age of 18, the \"traditional household.\" More people are divorcing or separating, choosing not to marry, marrying later, or marrying without the intention to have children. By 2010, childless married couples and empty nesters will constitute the largest household group, followed by single live-alones. Nontraditional households are currently growing more rapidly than traditional ones. Demand for smaller apartments; inexpensive and smaller appliances, furniture and furnishings; and smaller-size food packages are likely to increase. Diff: 0 Page Ref: 99 Objective: 4 AACSB: Difficulty: Moderate 131) What are the different income-distribution patterns? How does income distribution in the economies affect the marketing decision of the firms? Answer: Marketers often distinguish countries using five income-distribution patterns: (1) very low incomes; (2) mostly low incomes; (3) very low, very high incomes; (4) low, medium, high incomes; and (5) mostly medium incomes. The market would be very small in countries with type 1 or 2 income patterns and will be considerably large in the countries with income patterns 3 and 4. Countries which have a marked inequality in income distribution the companies tend to produce goods which are consumed by the mass as well as produce certain luxurious goods to cater to the richer section. Diff: 0 Page Ref: 100 Objective: 4 AACSB: Difficulty: Moderate 132) Discuss the impact of tougher environmental regulations on businesses, citing examples whenever possible. Also, point out opportunities, if any, presented by these regulations. Diff: 0 Page Ref: 102 Objective: 4 AACSB: Difficulty: Moderate 133) What does total market potential mean? How can it be estimated? Diff: 0 Page Ref: 110 Objective: 5 AACSB: Difficulty: Easy 134) Suppose a cotton-textile company wants to estimate the area market potential for its high quality fabrics in Houston. List the possible steps that the marketers will follow to compute the area market potential. Diff: 0 Page Ref: 110 Objective: 5 AACSB: Difficulty: Moderate 135) Briefly describe the methods of forecasting future demand on the basis of past sales. Objective: 5 AACSB: Difficulty: Moderate 136) What are the two basic advantages that a company\'s marketers have in identifying significant changes in the market? 137) Why is it necessary for firms to execute the steps of the order-to-payment cycle quickly and accurately? 138) Skyline Motors, an automobile manufacturing firm, is planning to introduce its new range of sports cars. It decides to offer a zero percent financing to the buyers. Skyline can save its mailing expenses by sending the offer only to its high-scoring customers instead of sending it to every customer in its database. Mention the factors according to which it may rank the customers in its database. Diff: 0 Page Ref: 93 Objective: 2 AACSB: Difficulty: Moderate 139) List some of the ways in which data mining assists the decision makers of the company. Answer: Diff: 0 Page Ref: 93 Objective: 2 AACSB: Difficulty: Moderate 140) How do the distributors, retailers and other intermediaries help a company to improve the quantity and quality of its marketing intelligence? Answer: Diff: 0 Page Ref: 94 Objective: 3 AACSB: Difficulty: Easy 141) Suppose Ornate Inc. and Oracle are the only players in digital camera industry. What can Ornate do to acquire marketing intelligence? Answer: . Diff: 0 Page Ref: 94 Objective: 3 AACSB: Difficulty: Moderate 142) The United States has one of the world\'s highest percentages of college-educated citizens. What can be the possible implications of this observation to the marketing environment of a U.S. firm? Answer: The high percentage of college-educated citizens in the United States suggests that there would be high demand for quality books, magazines, and travel. It also implies that there would be a high supply of skilled potential employees. Students can point out other implications. Diff: 0 Page Ref: 99 Objective: 4 AACSB: Analytic skills Difficulty: Moderate 143) Suppose the people of Greenworld, an island on the southwest Pacific are primarily involved in the direct procurement of edible plants and animals from the wild, foraging and hunting without significant recourse to the domestication of either. On the contrary people in Newland, a country rich in petroleum resources export petroleum to the industrial countries. Which of the two countries mentioned above is likely to offer greater marketing opportunities for luxurious goods and why? Diff: 0 Page Ref: 100 Objective: 4 AACSB: Analytic skills Difficulty: Moderate 144) Why do the companies need to search for practical means to harness renewable sources of energy like wind and water? Diff: 0 Page Ref: 103 Objective: 4 AACSB: Difficulty: Moderate 145) Philips Lighting\'s first shot at marketing a standalone compact fluorescent light (CFL) bulb was Earth Light, at $15 each versus 75 cents for incandescent bulbs. The product had difficulty climbing out of its deep green niche, as such marketing efforts of Philips suffered from the \"green marketing myopia\". Identify the three ways of avoiding this. Diff: 0 Page Ref: 104 Objective: 4 AACSB: Difficulty: Moderate 146) Organix Internationals LLC is planning to introduce its new range of breakfast cereals. List the different product levels that it considers while formulating the demand estimates for the new product. Diff: 0 Page Ref: 107 Objective: 5 AACSB: Difficulty: Difficult 147) Suppose, the Belgian government prohibits sale of cigarettes to people below 20 years of age. Who are likely to comprise the qualified available market for Dunhill, a manufacturer of herbal cigarettes in Belgium? Diff: 0 Page Ref: 107 Objective: 5 AACSB: Analytic skills Difficulty: Moderate 148) If the ratio between current and potential levels of market demand is close to unity, what can you infer about the industry\'s market-penetration index and the growth potential of the firms in the industry? Diff: 0 Page Ref: 108 Objective: 5 AACSB: Difficulty: Easy 149) How does the marketing environment determine the position of the market demand function? Diff: 0 Page Ref: 109 Objective: 5 AACSB: Difficulty: Difficult 150) Suppose 100 million people consume black tea every year, and an average consumer consumes 8 kgs of tea at an average price of $3 per kg. Compute the total market potential for tea. Diff: 0 Page Ref: 110 Objective: 5 AACSB: Analytic skills Difficulty: Moderate 151) Simpsons, a manufacturer of air conditioners, finds that its sales potential is less than its market potential even when it spends a sufficient amount on advertisements and after sale services. What is the basic reason behind such an observation by the marketers of Simpsons? Diff: 0 Page Ref: 110 Objective: 5 AACSB: Analytic skills Difficulty: Moderate 152) Two major methods of computing area market potential are market build-up method and multiple factor-index method. Which of these methods will Nexus Enterprises, a manufacturer of auto parts implement to estimate its market potential? Diff: 0 Page Ref: 110 Objective: 5 AACSB: Analytic skills Difficulty: Moderate 153) Suppose the brand development index of the detergent manufactured by Fasclean in Boston is 90 and that in Austin is 48. Compare the marketing opportunity of Fasclean detergent in the two cities. Diff: 0 Page Ref: 112 Objective: 5 AACSB: Analytic skills Difficulty: Moderate 154) Suppose Redbus, a player in the small car market is planning to launch its new range of hybrid cars. It decides to estimate the future demand for its new car before launching it in the market. If interviewing consumers is not practical, what alternative technique might it resort to? Diff: 0 Page Ref: 113 Objective: 5 AACSB: Analytic skills Difficulty: Moderate 155) Assume that you are a marketing manager for a youth clothing manufacturer that has just read about the megatrend of the \"rising Hispanic influence\" in the United States. Explain this megatrend and indicate why it might be important to your company. Diff: 0 Page Ref: 98-99 Objective: 4 AACSB: Analytic skills Difficulty: Difficult  

Microbiology Techniques \"Full contents page, all pages numbered. Complete set of lecture notes for 2nd year Microbiology Techniques for any biological or medical degree. These notes alone allowed the achievement of a first (1)/ A in this module. Contents Introduction – 2 Culturable Counts – 3 Direct Counts – 5 Fluorescence and Quorum Sensing – 7 Quorum Sensing – 10 Non-QS Controlled Bioluminescence – 12 Killing Bacteria – 13 Microbial Ecology of Sand Flies – 17 Art of Microbiology – 19\"

CHAPTER 1 THE MANAGER AND MANAGEMENT ACCOUNTING. 100% Verified. How does management accounting differ from financial accounting? 1-2 “Management accounting should not fit the straitjacket of financial accounting.” Explain and give an example. 20 CHAPTER 1 THE MANAGER AND MANAGEMENT ACCOUNTING 1-3 How can a management accountant help formulate strategy? 1-4 Describe the business functions in the value chain. 1-5 Explain the term “supply chain” and its importance to cost management. 1-6 “Management accounting deals only with costs.” Do you agree? Explain. 1-7 How can management accountants help improve quality and achieve timely product deliveries? 1-8 Describe the five-step decision-making process. 1-9 Distinguish planning decisions from control decisions. 1-10 What three guidelines help management accountants provide the most value to managers? 1-11 “Knowledge of technical issues such as computer technology is a necessary but not sufficient condition to becoming a successful management accountant.” Do you agree? Why? 1-12 As a new controller, reply to this comment by a plant manager: “As I see it, our accountants may be needed to keep records for shareholders and Uncle Sam, but I don’t want them sticking their noses in my day-to-day operations. I do the best I know how. No bean counter knows enough about my responsibilities to be of any use to me.” 1-13 Where does the management accounting function fit into an organization’s structure? 1-14 Name the four areas in which standards of ethical conduct exist for management accountants in the United States. What organization sets forth these standards? 1-15 What steps should a management accountant take if established written policies provide insufficient guidance on how to handle an ethical conflict? Exercises 1-16 Value chain and classification of costs, computer company. Compaq Computer incurs the following costs: a. Electricity costs for the plant assembling the Presario computer line of products b. Transportation costs for shipping the Presario line of products to a retail chain c. Payment to David Kelley Designs for design of the Armada Notebook d. Salary of computer scientist working on the next generation of minicomputers e. Cost of Compaq employees’ visit to a major customer to demonstrate Compaq’s ability to interconnect with other computers f. Purchase of competitors’ products for testing against potential Compaq products g. Payment to television network for running Compaq advertisements h. Cost of cables purchased from outside supplier to be used with Compaq printers Required Classify each of the cost items (a–h) into one of the business functions of the value chain shown in Exhibit 1-2 (p. 6). 1-17 Value chain and classification of costs, pharmaceutical company. Merck, a pharmaceutical company, incurs the following costs: a. Cost of redesigning blister packs to make drug containers more tamperproof b. Cost of videos sent to doctors to promote sales of a new drug c. Cost of a toll-free telephone line used for customer inquiries about drug usage, side effects of drugs, and so on d. Equipment purchased to conduct experiments on drugs yet to be approved by the government e. Payment to actors for a television infomercial promoting a new hair-growth product for balding men f. Labor costs of workers in the packaging area of a production facility g. Bonus paid to a salesperson for exceeding a monthly sales quota h. Cost of Federal Express courier service to deliver drugs to hospitals Required Classify each of the cost items (a–h) as one of the business functions of the value chain shown in Exhibit 1-2 (p. 6). 1-18 Value chain and classification of costs, fast food restaurant. Burger King, a hamburger fast food restaurant, incurs the following costs: a. Cost of oil for the deep fryer b. Wages of the counter help who give customers the food they order c. Cost of the costume for the King on the Burger King television commercials d. Cost of children’s toys given away free with kids’ meals e. Cost of the posters indicating the special “two cheeseburgers for $2.50” f. Costs of frozen onion rings and French fries g. Salaries of the food specialists who create new sandwiches for the restaurant chain h. Cost of “to-go” bags requested by customers who could not finish their meals in the restaurant ASSIGNMENT MATERIAL 21 Classify each of the cost items (a–h) as one of the business functions of the value chain shown in Exhibit 1-2 (p. 6). Required 1-19 Key success factors. Grey Brothers Consulting has issued a report recommending changes for its newest manufacturing client, Energy Motors. Energy Motors currently manufactures a single product, which is sold and distributed nationally. The report contains the following suggestions for enhancing business performance: a. Add a new product line to increase total revenue and to reduce the company’s overall risk. b. Increase training hours of assembly line personnel to decrease the currently high volumes of scrap and waste. c. Reduce lead times (time from customer order of product to customer receipt of product) by 20% in order to increase customer retention. d. Reduce the time required to set up machines for each new order. e. Benchmark the company’s gross margin percentages against its major competitors. Link each of these changes to the key success factors that are important to managers. 1-20 Planning and control decisions. Conner Company makes and sells brooms and mops. It takes the Required following actions, not necessarily in the order given. For each action (a–e) state whether it is a planning decision or a control decision. a. Conner asks its marketing team to consider ways to get back market share from its newest competitor, Swiffer. b. Conner calculates market share after introducing its newest product. c. Conner compares costs it actually incurred with costs it expected to incur for the production of the new product. d. Conner’s design team proposes a new product to compete directly with the Swiffer. e. Conner estimates the costs it will incur to sell 30,000 units of the new product in the first quarter of next fiscal year. 1-21 Five-step decision-making process, manufacturing. Garnicki Foods makes frozen dinners that it sells through grocery stores. Typical products include turkey dinners, pot roast, fried chicken, and meat loaf. The managers at Garnicki have recently introduced a line of frozen chicken pies. They take the following actions with regard to this decision. a. Garnicki performs a taste test at the local shopping mall to see if consumers like the taste of its proposed new chicken pie product. b. Garnicki sales managers estimate they will sell more meat pies in their northern sales territory than in their southern sales territory. c. Garnicki managers discuss the possibility of introducing a new chicken pie. d. Garnicki managers compare actual costs of making chicken pies with their budgeted costs. e. Costs for making chicken pies are budgeted. f. Garnicki decides to introduce a new chicken pie. g. To help decide whether to introduce a new chicken pie, the purchasing manager calls a supplier to check the prices of chicken. Classify each of the actions (a–g) as a step in the five-step decision-making process (identify the problem and Required uncertainties, obtain information, make predictions about the future, choose among alternatives, implement the decision, evaluate performance, and learn). The actions are not listed in the order they are performed. 1-22 Five-step decision-making process, service firm. Brite Exteriors is a firm that provides house painting services. Robert Brite, the owner, is trying to find new ways to increase revenues. Mr. Brite performs the following actions, not in the order listed. a. Mr. Brite calls Home Depot to ask the price of paint sprayers. b. Mr. Brite discusses with his employees the possibility of using paint sprayers instead of hand painting to increase productivity and thus revenues. c. The workers who are not familiar with paint sprayers take more time to finish a job than they did when painting by hand. d. Mr. Brite compares the expected cost of buying sprayers to the expected cost of hiring more workers who paint by hand, and estimates profits from both alternatives. e. The project scheduling manager confirms that demand for house painting services has increased. f. Mr. Brite decides to buy the paint sprayers rather than hire additional painters. Classify each of the actions (a-f) according to its step in the five-step decision-making process (identify the Required problem and uncertainties, obtain information, make predictions about the future, choose among alternatives, implement the decision, evaluate performance, and learn). 22 CHAPTER 1 THE MANAGER AND MANAGEMENT ACCOUNTING 1-23 Professional ethics and reporting division performance. Marcia Miller is division controller and Tom Maloney is division manager of the Ramses Shoe Company. Miller has line responsibility to Maloney, but she also has staff responsibility to the company controller. Maloney is under severe pressure to achieve the budgeted division income for the year. He has asked Miller to book $200,000 of revenues on December 31. The customers’ orders are firm, but the shoes are still in the production process. They will be shipped on or around January 4. Maloney says to Miller, “The key event is getting the sales order, not shipping the shoes. You should support me, not obstruct my reaching division goals.” The following decisions were made from June through October 2011: a. June 2011: Raised subscription fee to $25.50 per month from July 2011 onward. The budgeted number of subscribers for this monthly fee is shown in the following table. b. June 2011: Informed existing subscribers that from July onward, monthly fee would be $25.50. c. July 2011: Offered e-mail service to subscribers and upgraded other online services. d. October 2011: Dismissed the vice president of marketing after significant slowdown in subscribers and subscription revenues, based on July through September 2011 data in the following table. e. October 2011: Reduced subscription fee to $22.50 per month from November 2011 onward. Results for July–September 2011 are as follows: Required 1. Describe Miller’s ethical responsibilities. 2. What should Miller do if Maloney gives her a direct order to book the sales? Problems 1-24 Planning and control decisions, Internet company. WebN offers its subscribers several services, such as an annotated TV guide and local-area information on weather, restaurants, and movie theaters. Its main revenue sources are fees for banner advertisements and fees from subscribers. Recent data are as follows: Month/Year Advertising Revenues Actual Number of Subscribers Monthly Fee Per Subscriber June 2009 December 2009 $ 415,972 867,246 29,745 55,223 $15.50 20.50 June 2010 892,134 59,641 20.50 December 2010 1,517,950 87,674 20.50 June 2011 2,976,538 147,921 20.50 Month/Year Budgeted Number of Subscribers Actual Number of Subscribers Monthly Fee per Subscriber July 2011 145,000 129,250 $25.50 August 2011 155,000 142,726 25.50 September 2011 165,000 145,643 25.50 Required 1. Classify each of the decisions (a–e) as a planning or a control decision. 2. Give two examples of other planning decisions and two examples of other control decisions that may be made at WebN. 1-25 Strategic decisions and management accounting. A series of independent situations in which a firm is about to make a strategic decision follow. Decisions: a. Roger Phones is about to decide whether to launch production and sale of a cell phone with standard features. b. Computer Magic is trying to decide whether to produce and sell a new home computer software package that includes the ability to interface with a sewing machine and a vacuum cleaner. There is no such software currently on the market. c. Christina Cosmetics has been asked to provide a “store brand” lip gloss that will be sold at discount retail stores. d. Marcus Meats is entertaining the idea of developing a special line of gourmet bologna made with sun dried tomatoes, pine nuts, and artichoke hearts. ASSIGNMENT MATERIAL 23 1. For each decision, state whether the company is following a low price or a differentiated product strategy. Required 2. For each decision, discuss what information the management accountant can provide about the source of competitive advantage for these firms. 1-26 Management accounting guidelines. For each of the following items, identify which of the management accounting guidelines applies: cost-benefit approach, behavioral and technical considerations, or different costs for different purposes. 1. Analyzing whether to keep the billing function within an organization or outsource it 2. Deciding to give bonuses for superior performance to the employees in a Japanese subsidiary and extra vacation time to the employees in a Swedish subsidiary 3. Including costs of all the value-chain functions before deciding to launch a new product, but including only its manufacturing costs in determining its inventory valuation 4. Considering the desirability of hiring one more salesperson 5. Giving each salesperson the compensation option of choosing either a low salary and a high-percentage sales commission or a high salary and a low-percentage sales commission 6. Selecting the costlier computer system after considering two systems 7. Installing a participatory budgeting system in which managers set their own performance targets, instead of top management imposing performance targets on managers 8. Recording research costs as an expense for financial reporting purposes (as required by U.S. GAAP) but capitalizing and expensing them over a longer period for management performanceevaluation purposes 9. Introducing a profit-sharing plan for employees 1-27 Role of controller, role of chief financial officer. George Perez is the controller at Allied Electronics, a manufacturer of devices for the computer industry. He is being considered for a promotion to chief financial officer. 1. In this table, indicate which executive is primarily responsible for each activity. Required Activity Controller CFO Managing accounts payable Communicating with investors Strategic review of different lines of businesses Budgeting funds for a plant upgrade Managing the company’s short-term investments Negotiating fees with auditors Assessing profitability of various products Evaluating the costs and benefits of a new product design 2. Based on this table and your understanding of the two roles, what types of training or experiences will George find most useful for the CFO position? 1-28 Pharmaceutical company, budgeting, ethics. Eric Johnson was recently promoted to Controller of Research and Development (R&D) for PharmaCor, a Fortune 500 pharmaceutical company, which manufactures prescription drugs and nutritional supplements. The company’s total R&D cost for 2012 was expected (budgeted) to be $5 billion. During the company’s mid-year budget review, Eric realized that current R&D expenditures were already at $3.5 billion, nearly 40% above the mid-year target. At this current rate of expenditure, the R&D division was on track to exceed its total year-end budget by $2 billion! In a meeting with CFO, James Clark, later that day, Johnson delivered the bad news. Clark was both shocked and outraged that the R&D spending had gotten out of control. Clark wasn’t any more understanding when Johnson revealed that the excess cost was entirely related to research and development of a new drug, Lyricon, which was expected to go to market next year. The new drug would result in large profits for PharmaCor, if the product could be approved by year-end. Clark had already announced his expectations of third quarter earnings to Wall Street analysts. If the R&D expenditures weren’t reduced by the end of the third quarter, Clark was certain that the targets he had announced publicly would be missed and the company’s stock price would tumble. Clark instructed Johnson to make up the budget short-fall by the end of the third quarter using “whatever means necessary.” 24 CHAPTER 1 THE MANAGER AND MANAGEMENT ACCOUNTING Johnson was new to the Controller’s position and wanted to make sure that Clark’s orders were followed. Johnson came up with the following ideas for making the third quarter budgeted targets: a. Stop all research and development efforts on the drug Lyricon until after year-end. This change would delay the drug going to market by at least six months. It is also possible that in the meantime a PharmaCor competitor could make it to market with a similar drug. b. Sell off rights to the drug, Markapro. The company had not planned on doing this because, under current market conditions, it would get less than fair value. It would, however, result in a onetime gain that could offset the budget short-fall. Of course, all future profits from Markapro would be lost. c. Capitalize some of the company’s R&D expenditures reducing R&D expense on the income statement. This transaction would not be in accordance with GAAP, but Johnson thought it was justifiable, since the Lyricon drug was going to market early next year. Johnson would argue that capitalizing R & D costs this year and expensing them next year would better match revenues and expenses. Required 1. Referring to the “Standards of Ethical Behavior for Practitioners of Management Accounting and Financial Management,” Exhibit 1-7 on page 16, which of the preceding items (a–c) are acceptable to use? Which are unacceptable? 2. What would you recommend Johnson do? 1-29 Professional ethics and end-of-year actions. Janet Taylor is the new division controller of the snack-foods division of Gourmet Foods. Gourmet Foods has reported a minimum 15% growth in annual earnings for each of the past five years. The snack-foods division has reported annual earnings growth of more than 20% each year in this same period. During the current year, the economy went into a recession. The corporate controller estimates a 10% annual earnings growth rate for Gourmet Foods this year. One month before the December 31 fiscal year-end of the current year, Taylor estimates the snack-foods division will report an annual earnings growth of only 8%. Warren Ryan, the snack-foods division president, is not happy, but he notes that “the end-of-year actions” still need to be taken. Taylor makes some inquiries and is able to compile the following list of end-of-year actions that were more or less accepted by the previous division controller: a. Deferring December’s routine monthly maintenance on packaging equipment by an independent contractor until January of next year b. Extending the close of the current fiscal year beyond December 31 so that some sales of next year are included in the current year c. Altering dates of shipping documents of next January’s sales to record them as sales in December of the current year d. Giving salespeople a double bonus to exceed December sales targets e. Deferring the current period’s advertising by reducing the number of television spots run in December and running more than planned in January of next year f. Deferring the current period’s reported advertising costs by having Gourmet Foods’ outside advertising agency delay billing December advertisements until January of next year or by having the agency alter invoices to conceal the December date g. Persuading carriers to accept merchandise for shipment in December of the current year although they normally would not have done so Required 1. Why might the snack-foods division president want to take these end-of-year actions? 2. Taylor is deeply troubled and reads the “Standards of Ethical Behavior for Practitioners of Management Accounting and Financial Management” in Exhibit 1-7 (p. 16). Classify each of the end-of-year actions (a–g) as acceptable or unacceptable according to that document. 3. What should Taylor do if Ryan suggests that these end-of-year actions are taken in every division of Gourmet Foods and that she will greatly harm the snack-foods division if she does not cooperate and paint the rosiest picture possible of the division’s results? 1-30 Professional ethics and end-of-year actions. Deacon Publishing House is a publishing company that produces consumer magazines. The house and home division, which sells home-improvement and home-decorating magazines, has seen a 20% reduction in operating income over the past nine months, primarily due to the recent economic recession and the depressed consumer housing market. The division’s Controller, Todd Allen, has felt pressure from the CFO to improve his division’s operating results by the end of the year. Allen is considering the following options for improving the division’s performance by year-end: a. Cancelling two of the division’s least profitable magazines, resulting in the layoff of twenty-five employees. b. Selling the new printing equipment that was purchased in January and replacing it with discarded equipment from one of the company’s other divisions. The previously discarded equipment no longer meets current safety standards. ASSIGNMENT MATERIAL 25 c. Recognizing unearned subscription revenue (cash received in advance for magazines that will be delivered in the future) as revenue when cash is received in the current month (just before fiscal year end) instead of showing it as a liability. d. Reducing the division’s Allowance for Bad Debt Expense. This transaction alone would increase operating income by 5%. e. Recognizing advertising revenues that relate to January in December. f. Switching from declining balance to straight line depreciation to reduce depreciation expense in the current year. 1. What are the motivations for Allen to improve the division’s year-end operating earnings? Required 2. From the point of view of the “Standards of Ethical Behavior for Practitioners of Management Accounting and Financial Management,” Exhibit 1-7 on page 16, which of the preceding items (a–f) are acceptable? Which are unacceptable? 3. What should Allen do about the pressure to improve performance? Collaborative Learning Problem 1-31 Global company, ethical challenges. Bredahl Logistics, a U.S. shipping company, has just begun distributing goods across the Atlantic to Norway. The company began operations in 2010, transporting goods to South America. The company’s earnings are currently trailing behind its competitors and Bredahl’s investors are becoming anxious. Some of the company’s largest investors are even talking of selling their interest in the shipping newcomer. Bredahl’s CEO, Marcus Hamsen, calls an emergency meeting with his executive team. Hamsen needs a plan before his upcoming conference call with uneasy investors. Brehdal’s executive staff make the following suggestions for salvaging the company’s short-term operating results: a. Stop all transatlantic shipping efforts. The start-up costs for the new operations are hurting current profit margins. b. Make deep cuts in pricing through the end of the year to generate additional revenue. c. Pressure current customers to take early delivery of goods before the end of the year so that more revenue can be reported in this year’s financial statements. d. Sell-off distribution equipment prior to year-end. The sale would result in one-time gains that could offset the company’s lagging profits. The owned equipment could be replaced with leased equipment at a lower cost in the current year. e. Record executive year-end bonus compensation for the current year in the next year when it is paid after the December fiscal year-end. f. Recognize sales revenues on orders received, but not shipped as of the end of the year. g. Establish corporate headquarters in Ireland before the end of the year, lowering the company’s corporate tax rate from 28% to 12.5%. 1. As the management accountant for Brehdahl, evaluate each of the preceding items (a–g) in the con- Required text of the “Standards of Ethical Behavior for Practitioners of Management Accounting and Financial Management,” Exhibit 1-7 on page 16. Which of the items are in violation of these ethics standards and which are acceptable? 2. What should the management accountant do with respect to those items that are in violation of the ethical standards for management accountants?

NSG6420 Week 1 to Week 9 Quiz, NSG6420 Week 5 Midterm Quiz (5 versions): Answers Marked and Explained The major impact of the physiological changes that occur with aging is: Student Answer: Reduced physiological reserve Reduced homeostatic mechanisms Impaired immunological response All of the above Instructor Explanation: The major impact of all of these physiological changes can be highlighted with three primary points. First, there is a reduced physiological reserve of most body systems, particularly cardiac, respiratory, and renal. Second, there are reduced homeostatic mechanisms that fail to adjust regulatory systems such as temperature control and fluid and electrolyte balance. Third, there is impaired immunological function: infection risk is greater, and autoimmune diseases are more prevalent. (Kennedy-Malone 3) Kennedy-Malone, Laurie, Kathleen Fletcher, Lori Martin-Plank. Advanced Practice Nursing in the Care of Older Adults. F.A. Davis Company, 2014-01-14. VitalBook file. Points Received: 2 of 2 Comments: Question 2. Question : Men have faster and more efficient biotransformation of drugs and this is thought to be due to: Student Answer: Less obesity rates than women Prostate enlargement Testosterone Less estrogen than women Instructor Explanation: Men have faster and more efficient biotransformation, presumably because of serum testosterone. Conditions of increased or decreased liver perfusion alter the overall level of the drug that is absorbed and how it is metabolized. (Kennedy-Malone 5) Kennedy-Malone, Laurie, Kathleen Fletcher, Lori Martin-Plank. Advanced Practice Nursing in the Care of Older Adults. F.A. Davis Company, 2014-01-14. VitalBook file. Points Received: 2 of 2 Comments: Question 3. Question : The cytochrome p system involves enzymes that are generally: Student Answer: Inhibited by drugs Induced by drugs Inhibited or induced by drugs Associated with decreased liver perfusion Instructor Explanation: Biotransformation occurs in all body tissues but primarily in the liver, where enzymatic activity (cytochrome P [CYP] system) alters and detoxifies the drug and prepares it for excretion. (Kennedy-Malone 5) Kennedy-Malone, Laurie, Kathleen Fletcher, Lori Martin-Plank. Advanced Practice Nursing in the Care of Older Adults. F.A. Davis Company, 2014-01-14. VitalBook file. Points Received: 2 of 2 Comments: Question 4. Question : Functional abilities are best assessed by: Student Answer: Self-report of function Observed assessment of function A comprehensive head-to-toe examination Family report of function Instructor Explanation: Two well-established tools used to evaluate function in older adults are the Katz Activities of Daily Living Scale (Katz et al., 1963) and the Lawton and Brody scale for Instrumental Activities of Daily Living (Lawton & Brody, 1969). It is important to be cautious about self-report of function (rather than direct observation of function) and to ask, “Do you …?” instead of “Can you …?” in order to determine if patients actually perform the activity. (Kennedy-Malone 40) Kennedy-Malone, Laurie, Kathleen Fletcher, Lori Martin-Plank. Advanced Practice Nursing in the Care of Older Adults. F.A. Davis Company, 2014-01-14. VitalBook file. Points Received: 2 of 2 Comments: Question 5. Question : Iron Deficiency Anemia (IDA) is classified as a microcytic, hypochromic anemia. This classification refers to which of the following laboratory data? Student Answer: Hemoglobin and Hematocrit Mean Corpuscular Volume (MCV) and Mean Corpuscular Hemoglobin (MCH) Serum ferritin and serum iron Total iron binding capacity and transferrin saturation Instructor Explanation: RBC indices reveal an MCV (mean corpuscular volume/RBC size) that will be decreased to <80 fL in adults; MCH (mean corpuscular hemoglobin/RBC color) will show hypochromia or pale cells; RBC distribution width (RDW)/volume variation will be increased. (Kennedy-Malone page 519) Kennedy-Malone, Laurie, Kathleen Fletcher, Lori Martin-Plank. Advanced Practice Nursing in the Care of Older Adults. F.A. Davis Company, 2014-01-14. VitalBook file. Points Received: 0 of 2 Comments: Question 6. Question : When interpreting laboratory data, you would expect to see the following in a patient with Anemia of Chronic Disease (ACD): Student Answer: Hemoglobin <12 g/dl, MCV decreased, MCH decreased Hemoglobin >12 g/dl, MCV increased, MCH increased Hemoglobin <12 g/dl, MCV normal, MCH normal Hemoglobin >12 g/dl, MCV decreased, MCH increased Instructor Explanation: Hemoglobin (Hgb): <12 g/dL (120 g/L) women <13 g/dL (130 g/L) men Rarely <10 g/dL (100 g/L) Mean corpuscular volume: 80–96 mcm3 (normocytic) Mean corpuscular hemoglobin Normochromic (normal color) RBC distribution width: normal (Kennedy-Malone page 517) Kennedy-Malone, Laurie, Kathleen Fletcher, Lori Martin-Plank. Advanced Practice Nursing in the Care of Older Adults. F.A. Davis Company, 2014-01-14. VitalBook file. Points Received: 0 of 2 Comments: Question 7. Question : The pathophysiological hallmark of ACD is: Student Answer: Depleted iron stores Impaired ability to use iron stores Chronic uncorrectable bleeding Reduced intestinal absorption of iron Instructor Explanation: The pathophysiological hallmark of ACD is a disregulation of iron homeostasis, characterized by an increased uptake and retention of iron within the cells of the reticuloendothelial system (liver/spleen), resulting in decreased RBC production. Essentially, iron is present but inaccessible for use in the production of Hgb with the erythrocytes (Bross et al., 2010). A shortened RBC survival is also a contributing factor to ACD. (Kennedy-Malone page 516-517) Kennedy-Malone, Laurie, Kathleen Fletcher, Lori Martin-Plank. Advanced Practice Nursing in the Care of Older Adults. F.A. Davis Company, 2014-01-14. VitalBook file. Points Received: 0 of 2 Comments: Question 8. Question : The main focus of treatment of patients with ACD is: Student Answer: Replenishing iron stores Providing for adequate nutrition high in iron Management of the underlying disorder Administration of monthly vitamin B12 injections Instructor Explanation: Treatment: Treatment of ACD focuses on management of the underlying disorder. Iron supplementation is of no benefit in ACD, except in cases of coexisting IDA. A therapeutic trial of iron supplementation of no longer than 1 month may be useful in delineating between ACD and IDA. In ACD, there would be no hematological response to iron therapy (Chen & Gandhi, 2004). (Kennedy-Malone page 518) Kennedy-Malone, Laurie, Kathleen Fletcher, Lori Martin-Plank. Advanced Practice Nursing in the Care of Older Adults. F.A. Davis Company, 2014-01-14. VitalBook file. Points Received: 2 of 2 Comments: Question 9. Question : In addition to the complete blood count (CBC) with differential, which of the following laboratory tests is considered to be most useful in diagnosing ACD and IDA? Student Answer: Serum iron Total iron binding capacity Transferrin saturation Serum ferritin Instructor Explanation: Treatment: Treatment of ACD focuses on management of the underlying disorder. Iron supplementation is of no benefit in ACD, except in cases of coexisting IDA. A therapeutic trial of iron supplementation of no longer than 1 month may be useful in delineating between ACD and IDA. In ACD, there would be no hematological response to iron therapy (Chen & Gandhi, 2004). (Kennedy-Malone page 518) Kennedy-Malone, Laurie, Kathleen Fletcher, Lori Martin-Plank. Advanced Practice Nursing in the Care of Older Adults. F.A. Davis Company, 2014-01-14. VitalBook file. Points Received: 2 of 2 Comments: Question 10. Question : Symptoms in the initial human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infection include all of the following except: Student Answer: Sore throat Fever Weight loss Headache Instructor Explanation: Signal symptoms: The initial HIV infection is characterized by mononucleosis-like illness with fever, sore throat, lymphadenopathy, headache, and fatigue. A roseola-like rash may also develop. These initial symptoms are followed by an asymptomatic phase, which may last 10 years or more. Later, if untreated, lymphadenopathy, weight loss, myalgias, and diarrhea may develop (Cohen, Kuritzkes, & Sax, 2011). In advanced disease, malignancies and opportunistic infections occur. Co-infection with hepatitis B or C is common (25% to 30%) in IV drug users, so hepatitis symptoms may also appear (Centers for Disease Control and Prevention [CDC], 2010a). (Kennedy-Malone page 521) Kennedy-Malone, Laurie, Kathleen Fletcher, Lori Martin-Plank. Advanced Practice Nursing in the Care of Older Adults. F.A. Davis Company, 2014-01-14. VitalBook file. Points Received: 0 of 2 Comments: Question 11. Question : Essential parts of a health history include all of the following except: Student Answer: Chief complaint History of the present illness Current vital signs All of the above are essential history components Instructor Explanation: Vital signs are part of the physical examination portion of patient assessment, not part of the health history. Points Received: 2 of 2 Comments: Question 12. Question : Which of the following clinical reasoning tools is defined as evidence-based resource based on mathematical modeling to express the likelihood of a condition in select situations, settings, and/or patients? Student Answer: Clinical practice guideline Clinical decision rule Clinical algorithm Clinical recommendation Instructor Explanation: Clinical decision (or prediction) rules provide another support for clinical reasoning. Clinical decision rules are evidence-based resources that provide probabilistic statements regarding the likelihood that a condition exists if certain variables are met with regard to the prognosis of patients with specific findings. Decision rules use mathematical models and are specific to certain situations, settings, and/or patient characteristics. Goolsby page 7 Points Received: 2 of 2 Comments: Question 13. Question : The first step in the genomic assessment of a patient is obtaining information regarding: Student Answer: Family history Environmental exposures Lifestyle and behaviors Current medications Instructor Explanation: A critical first step in genomic assessment, including assessment of risk, is the use of family history. Family history is considered the first genetic screen (Berry & Shooner 2004) and is a critical component of care because it reflects shared genetic susceptibilities, shared environment, and common behaviors (Yoon, Scheuner, & Khoury 2003). Goolsby page 18 Points Received: 2 of 2 Comments: Question 14. Question : In autosomal recessive (AR) disorders, individuals need: Student Answer: Only one mutated gene on the sex chromosomes to acquire the disease Only one mutated gene to acquire the disease Two mutated genes to acquire the disease Two mutated genes to become carriers Instructor Explanation: In autosomal recessive (AR) disorders, the offspring inherits the condition by receiving one copy of the gene mutation from each of the parents. Autosomal recessive disorders must be inherited through both parents (Nussbaum et al. 2007). Individuals who have an AR disorder have two mutated genes, one on each locus of the chromosome. Parents of an affected person are called carriers because each carries one copy of the mutation on one chromosome and a normal gene on the other chromosome. Carriers typically are not affected by the disease. Goolsby page 28 Points Received: 0 of 2 Comments: Question 15. Question : In AR disorders, carriers have: Student Answer: Two mutated genes; two from one parent that cause disease A mutation on a sex chromosome that causes a disease A single gene mutation that causes the disease One copy of a gene mutation but not the disease Instructor Explanation: Individuals who have an AR disorder have two mutated genes, one on each allele of the chromosome. Parents of an affected person are called carriers because each parent carries one copy of the mutation on one chromosome and a normal gene on the other chromosome. Carriers typically are not affected by the disease. In pedigrees with an AR inheritance patterns, males and females will be equally affected because the gene mutation is on an autosome. Goolsby page 28 Points Received: 2 of 2 Comments: Question 16. Question : A woman with an X-linked dominant disorder will: Student Answer: Not be affected by the disorder herself Transmit the disorder to 50% of her offspring (male or female) Not transmit the disorder to her daughters Transmit the disorder to only her daughters Instructor Explanation: Everyone born with an X-linked dominant disorder will be affected with the disease. Transmission of the disorder to the next generation varies by gender, however. A woman will transmit the mutation to 50% of all her offspring (male or female). Goolsby page 29 Points Received: 0 of 2 Comments: Question 17. Question : According to the Genetic Information Nondiscrimination Act (GINA): Student Answer: Nurse Practitioners (NPs) should keep all genetic information of patients confidential NPs must obtain informed consent prior to genetic testing of all patients Employers cannot inquire about an employee’s genetic information All of the above Instructor Explanation: On May 21, 2008, President George W. Bush signed the Genetic Information Nondiscrimination Act (GINA) to protect Americans against discrimination based upon their genetic information when it comes to health insurance and employment, paving the way for patient personalized genetic medicine without fear of discrimination (National Human Genome Research Institute 2012). Goolsby page 43 Points Received: 2 of 2 Comments: Question 18. Question : Which of the following would be considered a “red flag” that requires more investigation in a patient assessment? Student Answer: Colon cancer in family member at age 70 Breast cancer in family member at age 75 Myocardial infarction in family member at age 35 All of the above Instructor Explanation: Early onset cancer syndromes, heart disease, or dementia are red flags that warrant further investigation regarding hereditary disorders. Goolsby page 36 Points Received: 0 of 2 Comments: Question 19. Question : Your 2-year-old patient shows facial features, such as epicanthal folds, up-slanted palpebral fissures, single transverse palmar crease, and a low nasal bridge. These are referred to as: Student Answer: Variable expressivity related to inherited disease Dysmorphic features related to genetic disease De novo mutations of genetic disease Different penetrant signs of genetic disease Instructor Explanation: Assessing for dysmorphic features may enable identification of certain syndromes or genetic or chromosomal disorders (Jorde, Carey, & Bamshad 2010; Prichard & Korf 2008). Dysmorphology is defined as “the study of abnormal physical development” (Jorde, Carey, & Bamshad 2010, 302). Goolsby page 37 Points Received: 2 of 2 Comments: Question 20. Question : In order to provide a comprehensive genetic history of a patient, the NP should: Student Answer: Ask patients to complete a family history worksheet Seek out pathology reports related to the patient’s disorder Interview family members regarding genetic disorders All of the above Instructor Explanation: Asking the patient to complete a family history worksheet prior to the appointment saves time in the visit while offering the patient an opportunity to contribute to the collection of an accurate family history. Reviewing the family information can also help establish family rapport while verifying medical conditions in individual family members. If a hereditary condition is being considered but family medical information is unclear or unknown, requesting medical records and pathology or autopsy reports may be warranted. Goolsby page 32 1. Question : An 86-year-old patient who wears a hearing aid complains of poor hearing in the affected ear. In addition to possible hearing aid malfunction, this condition is often due to: Student Answer: Acoustic neuroma Cerumen impaction Otitis media Ménière’s disease Instructor Explanation: Elderly clients frequently present with complaints of hardened cerumen and decreased hearing resulting from cerumen impaction aggravated by hearing aid wear. (Goolsby 137-138) Conductive hearing loss is caused by a lesion involving the outer and middle ear to the level of the oval window. Various structural abnormalities, cerumen impaction, perforation of the tympanic membrane, middle ear fluid, damage to the ossicles from trauma or infection, otosclerosis, tympanosclerosis, cholesteatoma, middle ear tumors, temporal bone fractures, injuries related to trauma, and congenital problems are some of the causes. (Kennedy-Malone 170-171) Points Received: 2 of 2 Comments: Question 2. Question : In examination of the nose, the clinician observes gray, pale mucous membranes with clear, serous discharge. This is most likely indicative of: Student Answer: Bacterial sinusitis Allergic rhinitis Drug abuse Skull fracture Instructor Explanation: When examining the nose, assess the mucosa for integrity, color, moistness, and edema/lesions and the nasal septum for patency. The turbinates should be assessed for color and size. Pale, boggy turbinates suggest allergies; erythematous, swollen turbinates are often seen with infection. Any discharge should be noted. Clear, profuse discharge is often associated with allergies. (Goolsby 128-129) Patients with seasonal allergic rhinitis report rhinorrhea, sneezing, obstructed nasal passages, and pruritic eyes, nose, and oropharynx during the spring and fall. Patients with perennial allergic rhinitis have similar symptoms associated with exposure to environmental allergens typically in their homes. Physical examination may reveal a pale, boggy nasal mucosa, injected conjunctiva, enlarged turbinates, dark discoloration or bags under the eyes, and mouth breathing; absence of pale, boggy nasal mucosa does not rule out allergic rhinitis. (Kennedy-Malone 182-183) Points Received: 2 of 2 Comments: Question 3. Question : A 45 year old patient presents with ‘sore throat’ and fever for one week. After a quick strep screen you determine the patient has Strep throat. You know that streptococcal pharyngitis should be treated with antibiotics to prevent complications and to shorten the course of disease. Which of the following antibiotics should be considered when a patient is allergic to Penicillin? Student Answer: Amoxicillin EES (erythromycin) Bicillin L-A Dicloxacillin Instructor Explanation: MedU Card #1 Points Received: 2 of 2 Comments: Question 4. Question : Presbycusis is the hearing impairment that is associated with: Student Answer: Physiologic aging Ménière’s disease Cerumen impaction Herpes zoster Instructor Explanation: Presbycusis is an age-related cause of gradual sensorineural hearing loss and involves diminished hairy cell function within the cochlea as well as decreased elasticity of the TM. Although the changes associated with presbycusis often start in early adulthood, the decreased hearing acuity is usually not noticed until the individual is older than 65. (Goolsby 138) Because presbycusis is gradual and insidious, hearing loss may go unnoticed until it has progressed significantly. (Kennedy-Malone 170) Points Received: 2 of 2 Comments: Question 5. Question : Epistaxis can be a symptom of: Student Answer: Over-anticoagulation Hematologic malignancy Cocaine abuse All of the above Instructor Explanation: Cocaine abuse, which is more common than might be expected, frequently causes epistaxis. Hematologic disorders likely to cause bleeding include thrombocytopenia, leukemia, aplastic anemia, and hereditary coagulopathies. High doses of anticoagulants can cause epistaxis and bleeding from the gums. (Goolsby 142) Epistaxis results from a spontaneous rupture of a blood vessel in the nose, usually in the anterior septum in Kiesselbach\'s plexus (Nguyen, 2012). The bleeding may be secondary to local infections, systemic infections, drying of the nasal mucous membrane, trauma, arteriosclerosis, hypertension, or bleeding disorders. Trauma is usually the primary mechanism of disruption of the nasal mucosa. Posterior epistaxis can result in nausea and respiratory compromise. In older adults, nasal and paranasal tumors may be involved (Mäkitie, 2010). (Kennedy-Malone 168-169) Points Received: 2 of 2 Comments: Question 6. Question : Your patient has been using chewing tobacco for 10 years. On physical examination, you observe a white ulceration surrounded by erythematous base on the side of his tongue. The clinician should recognize that very often this is: Student Answer: Malignant melanoma Squamous cell carcinoma Aphthous ulceration Behcet’s syndrome Instructor Explanation: Most oral malignancies are painless until quite advanced, so patients are often unaware of the lesion unless the lip or anterior portion of the tongue is involved. The patient may become aware of the lesion if it bleeds. Squamous cell cancer lesions vary in appearance, from the reddened patches of erythroplakia to areas of induration/thickening, ulceration, or necrotic lesions. Lesions of malignant melanoma have varied pigmentation, including brown, blue, and black. Even lesions that appear flat and smooth may be nodular, indurated, or fixed to adjacent tissue on palpation. Even though patients with squamous cell malignancies often have a history of heavy alcohol and/or tobacco use or poor dentition, these are not risk factors for malignant melanoma. In Behcet’s syndrome, the patient complains of recurrent episodes of oral lesions that are consistent with aphthous ulcers. The number of lesions ranges from one to several; the size of the ulcers varies from less than to greater than 1 cm. Like aphthous ulcers, the lesions are well defined, with a pale yellow or gray base surrounded by erythema. The majority of patients also develop lesions on the genitals and eyes. (Goolsby 153) Tobacco use and heavy alcohol consumption, alone or synergistically, are strongly related to the development of oral cancer. Pipe smoking and sun exposure have been implicated in lip cancer. Leukoplakia and erythroplasia are often precursors to oral cancer. Relationships between oral cancer and Epstein-Barr virus, HPV, herpes simplex virus, and immunodeficiency states also have been found (Stenson, 2011). (Kennedy-Malone 177). Points Received: 2 of 2 Comments: Question 7. Question : A 26 year old patient presents with cough and general malaise for 3 days. They note that their eyes have been watering clear fluid and a ‘runny nose’ since yesterday. They note they ‘feel miserable’ and demand something to make them feel better. What would be the best first plan of treatment? Student Answer: Saline nasal spray for congestion and acetaminophen as needed for pain. Z-pack (azithromycin) for infection and Cromolyn nasal for congestion Hydrococone/acetaminophen as needed for pain and Guaifensin for congestion Cephalexin for infection and Cromolyn ophthalmic for congestion Instructor Explanation: MedU Card #4 Points Received: 0 of 2 Comments: Question 8. Question : Which of the following findings should trigger an urgent referral to a cardiologist or neurologist? Student Answer: History of bright flash of light followed by significantly blurred vision History of transient and painless monocular loss of vision History of monocular severe eye pain, blurred vision, and ciliary flush All of the above Instructor Explanation: Amaurosis fugax is a monocular, transient loss of vision. It stems from transient ischemia of the retina and presents an important warning sign for impending stroke. Depending on the circumstances reported, the patient should be immediately referred to either a cardiovascular or neurological specialist. (Goolsby 108) Points Received: 2 of 2 Comments: Question 9. Question : Dizziness that is described as \"lightheaded\" or, \"like I\'m going to faint,\" is usually caused by inadequate cerebral perfusion and is classified as? Student Answer: Presyncope Disequilibrium Vertigo Syncope Instructor Explanation: MedU Card #5 Points Received: 0 of 2 Comments: Question 10. Question : It is important to not dilate the eye if ____ is suspected. Student Answer: Cataract Macular degeneration Acute closed-angle glaucoma Chronic open-angle glaucoma Instructor Explanation: If the patient has experienced sudden onset of eye pain, it is important not to dilate the eyes before determining whether acute closed-angle glaucoma is present because dilating the eye may increase the intraocular pressure. (Goolsby 108) Acute glaucoma, also known as angle-closure or narrow-angle glaucoma, is an obstruction to the outflow of aqueous humor from the posterior to the anterior chamber through the trabecular meshwork, canal of Schlemm, and associated structures. It results in an elevation of intraocular pressure, damaging the optic nerve and causing loss of peripheral vision, eye pain, and redness. This type of glaucoma is uncommon but may occur as a primary disease or secondary to other conditions and constitutes an ophthalmic emergency (Kennedy-Malone 161) Points Received: 2 of 2 Comments: Question 11. Question : Mr. GC presents to the clinic with nausea and vomiting for 2 days, prior to that time he reports occasional ‘dizziness’ that got better with change in position. He denies a recent history of URI or any history of headaches or migraines. What would the most likely diagnosis be? Student Answer: Vestibular neruitis Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo Vestibular migraine Benign hypertensive central vertigo Instructor Explanation: MedU Card #9 Points Received: 2 of 2 Comments: Question 12. Question : Which of the following patients with vertigo would require neurologic imaging? Student Answer: A 68-year-old woman with a history of hypertension and sudden acute onset constant vertigo. She has right nystagmus that changes direction with gaze and that does not disappear when she focuses. A 45-year-old man with recurrent episodes of brief intense vertigo every time he turns his head rapidly. He has no other neurologic signs or symptoms. He has a positive Dix-Hallpike maneuver. A 66-year-old man with recurrent episodes of vertigo associated with tinnitus and hearing loss. His head thrust test is positive. A 28-year-old otherwise well woman with new onset constant vertigo with no other neurologic symptoms. On physical exam, she has unidirectional nystagmus that disappears when her gaze is fixed. Instructor Explanation: MedU Card #11. There are multiple reasons to be concerned about a central lesion and possible infarct in this patient. Her age puts her at risk as does her hypertension. Her physical exam shows nystagmus that changes direction and that does not inhibit with focus. Both of these findings are consistent with a central lesion. She needs an urgent MRI. Points Received: 0 of 2 Comments: Question 13. Question : A patient presents with eye redness, scant discharge, and a gritty sensation. Your examination reveals the palpable preauricular nodes, which are most likely with: Student Answer: Bacterial conjunctivitis Allergic conjunctivitis Chemical conjunctivitis Viral conjunctivitis Instructor Explanation: Preauricular nodes are nonpalpable and nontender in allergic conjunctivitis, usually nonpalpable in bacterial conjunctivitis, and palpable in viral conjunctivitis. (Goolsby 112) Points Received: 2 of 2 Comments: Question 14. Question : In assessing the eyes, which of the following is considered a “red flag” finding when associated with eye redness? Student Answer: History of prior red-eye episodes Grossly visible corneal defect Exophthalmos Photophobia Instructor Explanation: Red flag warnings for eye redness include pain (not discomfort or irritation), decreased vision, profuse discharge, and corneal defect grossly visible. (Goolsby 112) Points Received: 2 of 2 Comments: Question 15. Question : A 64-year-old male presents with erythema of the sclera, tearing, and bilateral pruritus of the eyes. The symptoms occur intermittently throughout the year and he has associated clear nasal discharge. Which of the following is most likely because of the inflammation? Student Answer: Bacterium Allergen Virus Fungi Instructor Explanation: Patients with seasonal allergic rhinitis report rhinorrhea, sneezing, obstructed nasal passages, and pruritic eyes, nose, and oropharynx during the spring and fall. Patients with perennial allergic rhinitis have similar symptoms associated with exposure to environmental allergens typically in their homes. Physical examination may reveal a pale, boggy nasal mucosa, injected conjunctiva, enlarged turbinates, dark discoloration or bags under the eyes, and mouth breathing; absence of pale, boggy nasal mucosa does not rule out allergic rhinitis. (Kennedy-Malone 182-183) Points Received: 2 of 2 Comments: Question 16. Question : Patients that have atopic disorders are mediated by the production of Immunoglobulin E (IgE) will have histamine stimulated as an immediate phase response. This release of histamine results in which of the following? Student Answer: Sinus pain, increased vascular permeability, and bronchodilation Bronchospasm, vascular permeability, and vasodilatation Contraction of smooth muscle, decreased vascular permeability, and vasoconstriction Vasodilatation, bronchodilation, and increased vascular permeability Instructor Explanation: Rhinitis may be either allergic or nonallergic. Allergic rhinitis results as a response of the nasal mucosa to airborne allergens in atopic genetically prone individuals. This response is mediated by the production of immunoglobulin E (IgE). IgE antibodies produced in response to the initial and subsequent exposure to allergens bind to the nasal mucosa. With repeated exposure, immediate type 1 hypersensitivity reactions may occur (Simoens & Laekeman, 2009). Antigen-specific T cells are activated through the lymphatic system in response to the antigen. The activated antigen-specific T cells activate B cells, and IgE is created in lymphoid tissue and at local tissue sites (Adelman, Casale, & Corren, 2002; Novak, 2009). The newly created antigen-specific IgE is released by plasma cells and binds to high-affinity IgE receptors located on the basophils and mast cells. This leads to the sensitization of the cells in the tissues of the nose, lung, or skin (Adelman et al., 2002; Cirillo, Pistorio, Tosca, & Ciprandi, 2009). IgE also binds with the antigen protein, beginning degranulation of the mast cells and basophils. These actions start the allergic cascade. Mediators are released as a result of the degranulation and include histamine, proteoglycans, enzymes, leukotrienes, cytokines, and many others. The chain in the release of mediators is responsible for the immediate and late phase responses of the cells. Histamine may be fully released within 30 minutes of degranulation, whereas cytokines may be released over many hours (Adelman et al., 2002; Derendorf & Meltzer, 2008). (Kennedy-Malone 181-182) Points Received: 2 of 2 Comments: Question 17. Question : You have a patient complaining of vertigo and want to know what could be the cause. Knowing there are many causes for vertigo, you question the length of time the sensation lasts. She tells you several hours to days and is accompanied by tinnitus and hearing loss. You suspect which of the following conditions? Student Answer: Ménière’s disease Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo Transient ischemic attack (TIA) Migraine Instructor Explanation: Ménière\'s disease commonly involves a triad of symptoms—severe vertigo, tinnitus, and hearing loss (Goolsby 140) Points Received: 2 of 2 Comments: Question 18. Question : In examining the mouth of an older adult with a history of smoking, the nurse practitioner finds a suspicious oral lesion. The patient has been referred for a biopsy to be sent for pathology. Which is the most common oral precancerous lesion? Student Answer: Fictional keratosis Keratoacanthoma Lichen planus Leukoplakia Instructor Explanation: The cause of most episodes of leukoplakia is not determined. However, this condition, which results in the development of white patches on the oral mucosa, is associated with an increased risk of oral squamous cell cancer. Risk factors for the development of leukoplakia include chronic/recurrent trauma to the affected site and the use of smokeless and smoked tobacco and alcohol. (Goolsby 152) Points Received: 2 of 2 Comments: Question 19. Question : Rheumatic heart disease is a complication that can arise from which type of infection? Student Answer: Epstein-Barr virus Diphtheria Group A beta hemolytic streptococcus Streptococcus pneumoniae Instructor Explanation: Group A beta-hemolytic streptococcal (GABHS) pharyngitis is a bacterial infection of the pharynx, commonly called strep throat. Complications of GABHS pharyngitis, although rare, include rheumatic heart disease and glomerulonephritis, and the condition requires prompt diagnosis and definitive treatment. Most patients with GABHS pharyngitis are children and youths. Other bacterial causes of pharyngitis include mycoplasmal pneumonia, gonorrhea, and diphtheria. (Goolsby 156) Points Received: 2 of 2 Comments: Question 20. Question : A patient complains of fever, fatigue, and pharyngitis. On physical examination there is pronounced cervical lymphadenopathy. Which of the following diagnostic tests should be considered? Student Answer: Mono spot Strep test Throat culture All of the above Instructor Explanation: The physical examination for sore throat should include a comprehensive assessment of the upper and lower respiratory systems, including ears, nose, mouth, throat, and lungs. The neck assessment should include, at a minimum, assessment of the cervical lymph nodes. Strep screens, throat cultures, and mononucleosis screens are common diagnostic studies used to narrow the differential diagnosis of sore throat. A CBC with differential count is helpful in determining the cause of sore throat. (Goolsby 156) 1. Question : Susan P., a 60-year-old woman with a 30 pack year history, presents to your primary care practice for evaluation of a persistent, daily cough with increased sputum production, worse in the morning, occurring over the past three months. She tells you, “I have the same thing, year after year.” Which of the following choices would you consider strongly in your critical thinking process? Student Answer: Seasonal allergies Acute bronchitis Bronchial asthma Chronic bronchitis Instructor Explanation: The pulmonary component includes an abnormal inflammatory response to noxious stimuli, principally tobacco, but also occupational and environmental pollutants. The hallmark of chronic bronchitis is a daily chronic cough with increased sputum production lasting for at least 3 consecutive months in at least 2 consecutive years, usually worse on awakening; this may or may not be associated with COPD (GOLD, 2011). Emphysema is characterized by obstruction to airflow caused by abnormal airspace enlargement distal to terminal bronchioles. Kennedy-Malone, Laurie, Kathleen Fletcher, Lori Martin-Plank. Advanced Practice Nursing in the Care of Older Adults. F.A. Davis Company, 2014-01-14. VitalBook file. (page 206) & Goolsby, Mary J., Laurie Grubbs. Advanced Assessment Interpreting Findings and Formulating Differential Diagnoses, 3rd Edition. F.A. Davis Company, 11/2014. VitalBook file. (page 213) Points Received: 2 of 2 Comments: Question 2. Question : A patient presents complaining of a 5 day history of upper respiratory symptoms including nasal congestion and drainage. On the day the symptoms began he had a low-grade fever that has now resolved. His nasal congestion persisted and he has had yellow nasal drainage for three days associated with mild headaches. On exam he is afebrile and in no distress. Examination of his tympanic membranes and throat are normal. Examination of his nose is unremarkable although a slight yellowish-clear drainage is noted. There is tenderness when you lightly percuss his maxillary sinus. What would your treatment plan for this patient be? Student Answer: Observation and reassurance Treatment with an antibiotic such as amoxicillin Treatment with an antibiotic such as a fluoroquinoline or amoxicillin-clavulanate Combination of a low dose inhaled corticosteroid and a long acting beta2 agonist inhaler. Instructor Explanation: MedU Card #4. According to the American Academy of Ortolaryngology—Head and Neck Surgery Foundation guidelines (2007) on sinusitis, making the distinction between a lingering viral upper respiratory infection that affects the nose and sinuses (viral rhinosinusitis) or early acute bacterial sinusitis can be difficult. It is more likely to be a viral rhinosinusitis if the duration of symptoms is less than ten days and they are not worsening. In this case, you can continue to observe the patient and reassure him that antibiotics are not necessary at this time. Points Received: 2 of 2 Comments: Question 3. Question : Emphysematous changes in the lungs produce the following characteristic in COPD patients? Student Answer: Asymmetric chest expansion Increased lateral diameter Increased anterior-posterior diameter Pectus excavatum Instructor Explanation: In COPD, patients commonly develop a barrel-shaped chest due to emphysematous changes in the lungs. A barrel shape is due to an increased anterior-posterior (AP) diameter. In emphysema, there is a 1:1 ratio of AP to lateral diameter; AP diameter equals the lateral diameter. Normally the AP diameter is twice the lateral diameter. Goolsby, Mary J., Laurie Grubbs. Advanced Assessment Interpreting Findings and Formulating Differential Diagnoses, 3rd Edition. F.A. Davis Company, 11/2014. VitalBook file( page 213-214) & Kennedy-Malone, Laurie, Kathleen Fletcher, Lori Martin-Plank. Advanced Practice Nursing in the Care of Older Adults. F.A. Davis Company, 2014-01-14. VitalBook file. (page 206) Points Received: 2 of 2 Comments: Question 4. Question : When palpating the posterior chest, the clinician notes increased tactile fremitus over the left lower lobe. This can be indicative of pneumonia. Areas of increased fremitus should raise the suspicion of conditions resulting in increased solidity or consolidation in the underlying lung tissue, such as in pneumonia, tumor, or pulmonary fibrosis. In the instance of an extensive bronchial obstruction: Student Answer: No palpable vibration is felt Decreased fremitus is felt Increased fremitus is felt Vibration is referred to the non-obstructed lobe Instructor Explanation: Areas of increased fremitus should raise the suspicion of conditions resulting in increased solidity or consolidation in the underlying lung tissue, such as in pneumonia, tumor, or pulmonary fibrosis. Conversely, areas of decreased fremitus raise the suspicion of abnormal fluid- or air-filled spaces, such as occurs with pleural effusion, pneumothorax, or emphysema. In the instance of an extensive bronchial obstruction, no palpable vibration is felt in the related field. Goolsby, Mary J., Laurie Grubbs. Advanced Assessment Interpreting Findings and Formulating Differential Diagnoses, 3rd Edition. F.A. Davis Company, 11/2014. VitalBook file. (page 209) & Kennedy-Malone, Laurie, Kathleen Fletcher, Lori Martin-Plank. Advanced Practice Nursing in the Care of Older Adults. F.A. Davis Company, 2014-01-14. VitalBook file. (page 193) Points Received: 2 of 2 Comments: Question 5. Question : Your patient presents with complaint of persistent cough. After you have finished obtaining the History of Present Illness, you realize that the patient may be having episodes of wheezing, in addition to his cough. The most common cause of cough with wheezing is asthma. What of the following physical exam findings will support your tentative diagnosis of asthma? Student Answer: Clear, watery nasal drainage with nasal turbinate swelling Pharyngeal exudate and lymphadenopathy Clubbing, cyanosis and edema. Diminished lung sounds with rales in both bases Instructor Explanation: MedU Card #9 Points Received: 2 of 2 Comments: Question 6. Question : Which of the following imaging studies should be considered if a pulmonary malignancy is suspected? Student Answer: Computed tomography (CT) scan Chest X-ray with PA, lateral, and lordotic views Ultrasound Positron emission tomography (PET) scan Instructor Explanation: For pulmonary malignancy, chest films are often nondiagnostic, although they may reveal a nodule, mass, or other abnormality. A CT scan of the chest is typically diagnostic. Goolsby, Mary J., Laurie Grubbs. Advanced Assessment Interpreting Findings and Formulating Differential Diagnoses, 3rd Edition. F.A. Davis Company, 11/2014. VitalBook file. (page 217-218) Kennedy-Malone, Laurie, Kathleen Fletcher, Lori Martin-Plank. Advanced Practice Nursing in the Care of Older Adults. F.A. Davis Company, 2014-01-14. VitalBook file. (page 251) Points Received: 2 of 2 Comments: Question 7. Question : A 26-year-old, non-smoker, male presented to your clinic with SOB with exertion. This could be due to: Student Answer: Exercise-induced cough Bronchiectasis Alpha-1 deficiency Pericarditis Instructor Explanation: When younger patients or nonsmokers develop findings consistent with COPD, alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency should be suspected. Currently, the American Thoracic Society (2003) recommends that all individuals with COPD or asthma with chronic obstructive changes be tested for alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency. If alpha-1 antitrypsin deficit is suspected, a qualitative serum should be performed as a screen, followed by quantitative study, as indicated. Goolsby, Mary J., Laurie Grubbs. Advanced Assessment Interpreting Findings and Formulating Differential Diagnoses, 3rd Edition. F.A. Davis Company, 11/2014. VitalBook file. (page 213) Kennedy-Malone, Laurie, Kathleen Fletcher, Lori Martin-Plank. Advanced Practice Nursing in the Care of Older Adults. F.A. Davis Company, 2014-01-14. VitalBook file. (page 206) Points Received: 2 of 2 Comments: Question 8. Question : Upon assessment of respiratory excursion, the clinician notes asymmetric expansion of the chest. One side expands greater than the other. This could be due to: Student Answer: Pneumothorax Pleural effusion Pneumonia Pulmonary embolism Instructor Explanation: The respiratory excursion, or expansion, is determined by placing hands around the patient’s posterior rib cage with the thumbs approximately at the level of the 10th rib between the thumbs, and then asking the patient to take a deep breath and observing the movement of the hands. The motion should be symmetrical. Less than anticipated movement occurs with advanced COPD and many restrictive processes, such as interstitial lung disease. Asymmetry of movement occurs with atelectasis, lobar collapse, pneumothorax, and several other conditions. Goolsby, Mary J., Laurie Grubbs. Advanced Assessment Interpreting Findings and Formulating Differential Diagnoses, 3rd Edition. F.A. Davis Company, 11/2014. VitalBook file (page 208-209) Kennedy-Malone, Laurie, Kathleen Fletcher, Lori Martin-Plank. Advanced Practice Nursing in the Care of Older Adults. F.A. Davis Company, 2014-01-14. VitalBook file. (pages 193 & 227) Points Received: 2 of 2 Comments: Question 9. Question : A 72-year-old woman and her husband are on a cross-country driving vacation. After a long day of driving, they stop for dinner. Midway through the meal, the woman becomes very short of breath, with chest pain and a feeling of panic. Which of the following problems is most likely? Student Answer: Pulmonary edema Heart failure Pulmonary embolism Pneumonia Instructor Explanation: The problem may occur when these symptoms are attributed to aging or existing comorbidities. Dyspnea (acute onset), anxiety or apprehension, pleuritic chest pain, cough, tachypnea, and accentuation of the pul-monic component of S2 are frequently present and may be accompanied by diaphoresis, syncope, tachycardia, S3 or S4 gallop, hypoxemia, or hemoptysis . Kennedy-Malone, Laurie, Kathleen Fletcher, Lori Martin-Plank. Advanced Practice Nursing in the Care of Older Adults. F.A. Davis Company, 2014-01-14. VitalBook file. (page 246) Goolsby, Mary J., Laurie Grubbs. Advanced Assessment Interpreting Findings and Formulating Differential Diagnoses, 3rd Edition. F.A. Davis Company, 11/2014. VitalBook file (page 202) Points Received: 2 of 2 Comments: Question 10. Question : A cough is described as chronic if it has been present for: Student Answer: 2 weeks or more 8 weeks or more 3 months or more 6 months or more Instructor Explanation: Cough is classified as acute (less than 3 weeks in duration), subacute (lasting 3 to 8 weeks), and chronic (8 or more weeks in duration), and these distinctions help to narrow the potential differential diagnoses. Goolsby, Mary J., Laurie Grubbs. Advanced Assessment Interpreting Findings and Formulating Differential Diagnoses, 3rd Edition. F.A. Davis Company, 11/2014. VitalBook file. (page 211) Kennedy-Malone, Laurie, Kathleen Fletcher, Lori Martin-Plank. Advanced Practice Nursing in the Care of Older Adults. F.A. Davis Company, 2014-01-14. VitalBook file. ((page 206) Points Received: 2 of 2 Comments: Question 11. Question : Testing is necessary for the diagnosis of asthma because history and physical are not reliable means of excluding other diagnoses or determining the extent of lung impairment. What is the study that is used to evaluate upper respiratory symptoms with new onset wheeze? Student Answer: Chest X-ray Methacholine challenge test Spirometry, both with and without bronchodilation Ventilation/perfusion scan Instructor Explanation: MedU Card #10 Points Received: 2 of 2 Comments: Question 12. Question : In classifying the severity of your patient presenting with an acute exacerbation of asthma. You determine that they have moderate persistent symptoms based on the report of symptoms and spirometry readings of the last 3 weeks. The findings that support moderate persistent symptoms include: Student Answer: Symptoms daily with nighttime awakening more than 1 time a week. FEV1 >60%, but predicted <80%. FEV1/FVC reduced 5% Symptoms less than twice a week and less than twice a week nighttime awakening. FEV1 >80% predicted. FEV1/FVC normal Symptoms more than 2 days a week, but not daily. Nighttime awakenings 3-4 times a month. FEV1 >80% predicted. FEV1/FVC normal Symptoms throughout the day with nighttime awakenings every night. FEV1< 60% predicted. FEV1/FVC reduced >5% Instructor Explanation: MedU Card #15 Points Received: 2 of 2 Comments: Question 13. Question : The following criterion is considered a positive finding when determining whether a patient with asthma can be safely monitored and treated at home: Student Answer: Age over 40 Fever greater than 101 Tachypnea greater than 30 breaths/minute Productive cough Instructor Explanation: Decision Rule: CURB-65 provides framework for determining whether the patient diagnosed with community-acquired pneumonia can be safely monitored and treated at home. One point is awarded for each of the following factors present: • Confusion of new onset • BUN greater than 20mg/dL • Respiratory rate of ≥ 30 breaths/minute • Blood pressure is less than 90 mmHg systolic or diastolic ≤ 60 mm Hg • Age 65 or older Patients scoring 3 to 5 typically require hospitalization for observation and therapy. Scores of 0 to 1 indicate likelihood that outpatient management is appropriate. A score of 2 is inconclusive. Goolsby, Mary J., Laurie Grubbs. Advanced Assessment Interpreting Findings and Formulating Differential Diagnoses, 3rd Edition. F.A. Davis Company, 11/2014. VitalBook file (page 214-216) Kennedy-Malone, Laurie, Kathleen Fletcher, Lori Martin-Plank. Advanced Practice Nursing in the Care of Older Adults. F.A. Davis Company, 2014-01-14. VitalBook file.( page 241) Points Received: 2 of 2 Comments: Question 14. Question : Medications are chosen based on the severity of asthma. Considering the patient that is diagnosed with moderate persistent asthma, the preferred option for maintenance medication is: Student Answer: High-dose inhaled corticosteroid and leukotriene receptor antagonist Oral corticosteroid—high and low dose as appropriate Short acting beta2 agonist inhaler and theophylline Low dose inhaled corticosteroid and long acting beta2 agonist inhaler Instructor Explanation: MedU Card #16 Points Received: 2 of 2 Comments: Question 15. Question : A 75-year-old patient with community-acquired pneumonia presents with chills, productive cough, temperature of 102.1, pulse 100, respiration 18, BP 90/52, WBC 12,000, and blood urea nitrogen (BUN) 22 mg/dl. He has a history of mild dementia and his mental status is unchanged from his last visit. These findings indicate that the patient: Student Answer: Can be treated as an outpatient Requires hospitalization for treatment Requires a high dose of parenteral antibiotic Can be treated with oral antibiotics Instructor Explanation: Decision Rule: CURB-65 provides framework for determining whether the patient diagnosed with community-acquired pneumonia can be safely monitored and treated at home. One point is awarded for each of the following factors present: • Confusion of new onset • BUN is greater than 20mg/dl • Respiratory rate of ≥ 30 breaths/minute • Blood pressure is less than 90 mmHg systolic or diastolic ≤ 60 mm Hg • Age 65 or older Patients scoring 3 to 5 typically require hospitalization for observation and therapy. Scores of 0 to 1 indicate likelihood that outpatient management is appropriate. A score of 2 is inconclusive. Goolsby, Mary J., Laurie Grubbs. Advanced Assessment Interpreting Findings and Formulating Differential Diagnoses, 3rd Edition. F.A. Davis Company, 11/2014. VitalBook file (page 214-216) Kennedy-Malone, Laurie, Kathleen Fletcher, Lori Martin-Plank. Advanced Practice Nursing in the Care of Older Adults. F.A. Davis Company, 2014-01-14. VitalBook file. (page 241) Points Received: 0 of 2 Comments: Question 16. Question : Which of the following is considered a “red flag” when diagnosing a patient with pneumonia? Student Answer: Fever of 102 Infiltrates on chest X-ray Pleural effusion on chest X-ray Elevated white blood cell count Instructor Explanation: With pneumonia, the chest film typically reveals an area of infiltrate. It is a red flag if a pleural effusion is also visualized, in which case adequate follow-up to exclude development of an empyema is mandatory. This often involves prompt referral to a pulmonologist for possible thoracentesis. Cultures and Gram stains of sputum are usually not ordered for outpatients. The white blood cell count is often elevated. Goolsby, Mary J., Laurie Grubbs. Advanced Assessment Interpreting Findings and Formulating Differential Diagnoses, 3rd Edition. F.A. Davis Company, 11/2014. VitalBook file. (page 214) Kennedy-Malone, Laurie, Kathleen Fletcher, Lori Martin-Plank. Advanced Practice Nursing in the Care of Older Adults. F.A. Davis Company, 2014-01-14. VitalBook file. (page 240) Points Received: 2 of 2 Comments: Question 17. Question : A 23-year-old patient who has had bronchiectasis since childhood is likely to have which of the following: Student Answer: Barrel-shaped chest Clubbing Pectus excavatum Prolonged capillary refill Instructor Explanation: In bronchiectasis, there is usually a history of chronic, productive cough. Sputum is typically mucopurulent and produced in increased amounts. Other common findings include shortness of breath, wheezing, fatigue, and possibly hemoptysis. Physical examination reveals rhonchi and/or wheezing. In advanced disease, clubbing and cyanosis may be present. Goolsby, Mary J., Laurie Grubbs. Advanced Assessment Interpreting Findings and Formulating Differential Diagnoses, 3rd Edition. F.A. Davis Company, 11/2014. VitalBook file (page 216) Points Received: 2 of 2 Comments: Question 18. Question : Your patient has just returned from a 6-month missionary trip to Southeast Asia. He reports unremitting cough, hemoptysis, and an unintentional weight loss of 10 pounds over the last month. These symptoms should prompt the clinician to suspect: Student Answer: Legionnaires\' disease Malaria Tuberculosis Pneumonia Instructor Explanation: Many times, patients with active tuberculosis are essentially symptom free. Some complain of malaise and/or fevers but have no significantly disruptive complaints. When respiratory symptoms occur with tuberculosis, cough is common; the cough is nonproductive at first and is later associated with sputum production. Additionally, patients with tuberculosis may experience progressive dyspnea, night sweats, weight loss, and hemoptysis. It is important to suspect tuberculosis when the patient has travelled to a country where TB is endemic, such as Asia. Goolsby, Mary J., Laurie Grubbs. Advanced Assessment Interpreting Findings and Formulating Differential Diagnoses, 3rd Edition. F.A. Davis Company, 11/2014. VitalBook file. (page 217) Kennedy-Malone, Laurie, Kathleen Fletcher, Lori Martin-Plank. Advanced Practice Nursing in the Care of Older Adults. F.A. Davis Company, 2014-01-14. VitalBook file. (page 249) Points Received: 2 of 2 Comments: Question 19. Question : A 76-year-old patient with a 200-pack year smoking history presents with complaints of chronic cough, dyspnea, fatigue, hemoptysis, and weight loss over the past 2 months. The physical exam reveals decreased breath sounds and dullness to percussion over the left lower lung field. The chest X-ray demonstrates shift of the mediastinum and trachea to the left. These are classic signs of: Student Answer: Lung cancer Tuberculosis Pneumonia COPD Instructor Explanation: Dyspnea is the most common symptom associated with pleural effusion, but effusion may be accompanied by cough, pain, and systemic symptoms, such as malaise and fever. Abnormal physical findings become evident as the effusion increases in volume. These include decreased lung sounds, dullness over the effusion, decreased fremitus, egophony, and whispered pectoriloquy. With extremely large effusions, the mediastinum and trachea may shift to the opposite side. The exception involves effusion related to malignancy, in which case the mediastinum and trachea may be pulled toward the malignancy. Goolsby, Mary J., Laurie Grubbs. Advanced Assessment Interpreting Findings and Formulating Differential Diagnoses, 3rd Edition. F.A. Davis Company, 11/2014. VitalBook file (page 217-218) Kennedy-Malone, Laurie, Kathleen Fletcher, Lori Martin-Plank. Advanced Practice Nursing in the Care of Older Adults. F.A. Davis Company, 2014-01-14. VitalBook file.(page 232) Points Received: 2 of 2 Comments: Question 20. Question : A 24-year-old patient presents to the emergency department after sustaining multiple traumatic injuries after a motorcycle accident. Upon examination, you note tachypnea, use of intercostal muscles to breathe, asymmetric chest expansion, and no breath sounds over the left lower lobe. It is most important to suspect: Student Answer: Pulmonary embolism Pleural effusion Pneumothorax Fracture of ribs Instructor Explanation: Pneumothorax involves air in the pleural cavity. A pneumothorax can occur spontaneously in otherwise healthy individuals or be secondary to trauma or intrinsic lung disease. There is history of sudden onset of shortness of breath associated with chest pain. The patient usually presents in great distress, with tachycardia and tachypnea, and is often splinting the chest. There is decreased fremitus and increased hyperresonance on the affected side. Lung sounds are diminished or absent. The trachea may shift away from the affected side if a large pneumothorax is present. Goolsby, Mary J., Laurie Grubbs. Advanced Assessment Interpreting Findings and Formulating Differential Diagnoses, 3rd Edition. F.A. Davis Company, 11/2014. VitalBook file (page 221) 1. Question : Which of the following is the most important question to ask during cardiovascular health history? Student Answer: Number of offspring Last physical exam Sudden death of a family member Use of caffeine Instructor Explanation: The sudden death of a family member is an important question to ask in the health history because it reveals the cardiovascular disease risk of the patient. Sudden death is usually due to an acute cardiovascular event, such as myocardial infarction, cardiac dysrhythmia, or stroke. Family history is particularly important for cardiac assessment because CVD, HTN, hyperlipidemia, and other vascular diseases often have a familial association that is not easily ameliorated by lifestyle changes. If there are deaths in the family related to CVD, determine the age and exact cause of death, because CVD at a young age in the immediate family carries an increased risk compared with CVD in an elderly family member. Ask about sudden death, which might indicate a congenital disease such as Marfan\'s syndrome. This is especially important to ask during pre-sports physicals because sudden death in athletes is often related to congenital or familial heart disease. Familial hyperlipidemia is autosomal dominant and often leads to CAD and MI at a young age. Family history of obesity and type 2 diabetes are also secondary risk factors for heart disease because the familial tendency for these is strong. Ask about smoking in the house, as secondhand smoke is a risk factor for respiratory and cardiac disease. (Goolsby 167-168) Goolsby, Mary J., Laurie Grubbs. Advanced Assessment Interpreting Findings and Formulating Differential Diagnoses, 3rd Edition. F.A. Davis Company, 11/2014. VitalBook file. Points Received: 2 of 2 Comments: Question 2. Question : A key symptom of ischemic heart disease is chest pain. However, angina equivalents may include exertional dyspnea. Angina equivalents are important because: Student Answer: Women with ischemic heart disease many times do not present with chest pain Some patients may have no symptoms or atypical symptoms; diagnosis may only be made at the time of an actual myocardial infarction Elderly patients have the most severe symptoms A & B only Instructor Explanation: The key symptom of IHD is chest pain, but other common symptoms include arm pain, lower jaw pain, shortness of breath, and diaphoresis. These symptoms are referred to as angina equivalents and can also include fatigue or breathlessness. Some patients may have no symptoms or atypical ones so that CAD may not be diagnosed until they experience a myocardial infarction. (Kennedy-Malone 227) Kennedy-Malone, Laurie, Kathleen Fletcher, Lori Martin-Plank. Advanced Practice Nursing in the Care of Older Adults. F.A. Davis Company, 2014-01-14. VitalBook file. Points Received: 2 of 2 Comments: Question 3. Question : A 55-year-old post-menopausal woman with a history of hypertension complains of jaw pain on heavy exertion. There were no complaints of chest pain. Her ECG indicates normal sinus rhythm without ST segment abnormalities. Your plan may include: Student Answer: Echocardiogram Exercise stress test Cardiac catheterization Myocardial perfusion imaging Instructor Explanation: Once all the results of the initial laboratory and ECG testing are reviewed, a pretest probability of disease can be generated and additional tests can be ordered.2 The probability of CAD can be calculated by considering the chosen noninvasive test\'s sensitivity and specificity.2 Selection of the proper cardiac test (see Table 115-1) for an individual depends on the person\'s risk stratification, age, and tolerable level of activity. The most common and least invasive test for diagnosis of CAD is the stress test, also called the exercise tolerance test (ETT) or treadmill exercise. (Buttaro 488) Buttaro, Terry, JoAnn Trybulski, Patricia Bailey, Joanne Sandberg-Cook. Primary Care, 4th Edition. Mosby, 2013. VitalBook file. Points Received: 2 of 2 Comments: Question 4. Question : Jenny is a 24 year old graduate student that presents to the clinic today with complaints of fever, midsternal chest pain and generalized fatigue for the past two days. She denies any cough or sputum production. She states that when she takes Ibuprofen and rest that the chest pain does seem to ease off. Upon examination the patient presents looking very ill. She is leaning forward and states that this is the most comfortable position for her. Temp is 102. BP= 100/70. Heart rate is 120/min and regular. Upon auscultation a friction rub is audible. Her lung sounds are clear. With these presenting symptoms your initial diagnosis would be: Student Answer: Mitral Valve Prolapse Referred Pain from Cholecystitis Pericarditis Pulmonary Embolus Instructor Explanation: Pericarditis Pericarditis, inflammation of the pericardium, is usually not a solo disease process but is seen in conjunction with other diseases or conditions. Pericarditis may occur as a complication of MI (Dressler\'s syndrome) or coronary artery bypass surgery. It is also more commonly seen in patients with connective tissue disorders such as rheumatoid arthritis, systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE), scleroderma, and sarcoidosis. Bacterial, viral, or fungal infections, including HIV, are risk factors for pericarditis. Pericarditis can occur with kidney failure or metastatic neoplasias or as a reaction to medication, particularly phenytoin, hydralazine, and procainamide. Rarely, it is idiopathic and the cause unknown, although a common viral infection is suspected. Cardiac tamponade can occur as a serious complication, and it is an emergency requiring immediate pericardiocentesis. Constrictive pericarditis can occur over time due to scarring of the pericardial sac. Signs and Symptoms Unlike the symptoms associated with ACS, the pain accompanying pericarditis is sharp and stabbing; it may worsen with inspiration or when lying flat or leaning forward. Associated symptoms may include shortness of breath, fever, chills, and malaise. (Goolsby 179) Goolsby, Mary J., Laurie Grubbs. Advanced Assessment Interpreting Findings and Formulating Differential Diagnoses, 3rd Edition. F.A. Davis Company, 11/2014. VitalBook file. Points Received: 2 of 2 Comments: Question 5. Question : Which symptom is more characteristic of Non-Cardiac chest pain? Student Answer: Pain often radiates to the neck, jaw, epi

To decrease detection risk the auditor changes the nature, timing and Page:of 12 Automatic Zoom Actual Size Page Fit Page Width 50% 75% 100% 125% 150% 200% 300% 400% Question 1 1 out of 1 points Which of the following is not a financial assertion made by management? Answer Correct Answer: Question 2 1 out of 1 points Which of the following is not a valid purpose of the representation letter? Answer Correct Answer: Question 3 1 out of 1 points Of the following, which is the least persuasive type of audit evidence? Answer Correct Answer: Question 4 1 out of 1 points Analytical procedures are most likely to detect: Answer Correct Answer: Question 5 1 out of 1 points Which of the following is not an approach to auditing an accounting estimate? Answer Correct Answer: Confirm the amounts. Response Feedback: Question 6 1 out of 1 points In regard to the auditor using the work of a specialist, which of the following is false? Answer Correct Answer: Response Feedback: Question 7 1 out of 1 points The relationship between audit risk (AR) , inherent risk (IR), control risk (CR) and detection risk (DR) may be best expressed by: Answer Correct Answer: AR = IR x CR x DR. Question 8 1 out of 1 points In order to decrease detection risk (when you decrease detection risk you actually increase the odds that you will detect a material misstatement), risk the auditor may do all except: Answer Correct Answer: Response Feedback: To decrease detection risk the auditor changes the nature, timing and extent of his audit testing. Nature = To decrease detection risk he will do more complex testing. Timing = To decrease detection risk he will do more testing at year end rather than in the interim periods. Extent = To decrease detection risk he will increase the quantity of testing.

Clinical Biochemistry \"Full contents page, all pages numbered. Complete set of lecture notes for 2nd year Clinical Biochemistry for any biological or medical degree. These notes alone allowed the achievement of a first (1)/ A in this module. Contents Use of Biochemical Tests in Medicine – 2 Calcium Metabolism – 3 Clinical Enzymology – 5 Liver – 7 Serum Protein Separation – 10 Disorders of the Endocrine System – 12 Acid – Base Regulation – 14 Kidney Function and Renal Tests – 15\"

APUS MGMT101 Week 1 Quiz Latest 2017 Question 1 of 20 The basic sections of an APA paper are as follows: title page, abstract (optional), text of the paper, and a reference page. Which of the following is true concerning an APA style paper? A. Always use contractions. B. Use 1 inch margins and make sure the text is on the justified setting. C. Normal paragraphs are always indented five character spaces in the paper with the exception of the abstract, titles and headings, subheadings, block quotes, and references. D. All the above. Question 2 of 20 Which statement is true concerning the Title Page of an APA style paper? A. The first thing that appears at the top of the title page is the Running Head, consisting of a couple of key words from the title of the paper. B. The title of the paper should always be underlined. C. Running head is aligned on the left margin On the same line as page number. Should read Running head: Portion of the title not to exceed 50 characters. All letters of the title are capitalized. D. The Page Header consists of the page number first and then the title of the paper with a right justified margin. Question 3 of 20 General rule of APA style and format includes which of the following? A. After the use of a colon, always capitalize the first letter of the first word whether there is a complete sentence. B. Always spell out on the first use of an acronym. C. You should always use 10 point black font when writing an APA style paper. D. Always triple space after sentence terminators (i.e. .,?!). Question 4 of 20 When using numbers in an APA essay, A. Numbers zero to nine are spelled out while numbers 10 and above are written as numbers. Exceptions include when numbers are in a table, a figure number (i.e. Figure 3), a metric measurement or used as the first word of a sentence. B. Numbers 0 to 9 are always written as numbers while numbers ten and above are always spelled out. Exceptions include when numbers are used in a table, a figure number (i.e. Figure Three), a metric measurement or used as the first word of a sentence. C. Numbers in the abstract should never be spelled out. D. None of the above. Question 5 of 20 Which statement is an appropriate citation in the text of a paper? A. (e.g., Young and Bristow, 2005). B. Winstanley, Mayo, Joseph, and Dunn (2006) stated .... C. According to Smith, 2002, .... D. None of the above. Question 6 of 20 Which statement is true when using quotations in an APA style paper? A. When using a quote, there is no need to use page numbers; just be sure to list authors on a reference page. B. When using a quote more than 40 words, display it in a freestanding block of text, omit the quotation marks, indent about a half inch from the left margin, and continue to double space block style. C. When using a quote more than 40 words, you must indent five spaces from the left margin and single space the quote. D. Direct quotes are unlimited and can be used throughout the paper as long as proper citation is given in both the text of the paper and the reference page. Question 7 of 20 When typing the title on the title page: A. Center the title to the page and always capitalize the title of the paper. B. The title of the paper should be placed center of the paper but only 10 lines down from the top margin. C. Title should typed in upper and lower letters, centered and positioned in the upper half of page. D. None of the above is true. Question 8 of 20 Depending on the type paper, the instructor should advise their students if an abstract is required. If that is the case, which of the following statement is true concerning abstracts? A. The abstract page is always page two. B. There is no limit to the number of words to be used in an abstract. C. You should always indent the first paragraph of an abstract. D. There is not a running head on the abstract page. Question 9 of 20 The reference page should: A. Always be single spaced with no indention. B. Include only authors where you used a direct quote. C. Always use authors' entire names, no initials. D. None of the above is true. Question 10 of 20 When citing a book with multiple authors on the reference page: A. Include all authors' full names and year of publication. B. Include only the first author's last name and initial of first name AND the year of publication. C. Include all authors' last names, initial of first and middle (if applicable) names, AND the year of publication. D. Include only the first author's last name followed by et al. AND the year of publication. Question 11 of 20 The order of references on the reference page is as follows: A. By alphabetical order by last name of author(s) or by first character of the first word of a reference (if no author is provided). B. How references are cited in the paper (i.e., first reference used in the paper should be the first reference on the Reference page). C. By year of publication starting with the most recent to the oldest reference cited. D. By year of publication starting with the oldest to the most recent reference cited. Question 12 of 20 When citing a book on the reference page: A. Always capitalize the first letter of all words in the title. B. Capitalize only the first word of the title. C. Always spell out the state in which the book was published. D. The entire reference should be italicized except for the year of publication. Question 13 of 20 When citing a direct quote, which sequence is required for APA style? A. The author(s), year of publication. B. The author(s), page number. C. The author(s), page number, and year of publication. D. The author(s), year of publication, and page numbers. Question 14 of 20 When citing a reference: A. Use a hanging indent for each reference after the first line of the reference. B. Separate multiple authors with commas and last author with ampersand (&). C. Year always follows the author(s) in parentheses and is followed by a period. D. All the above are correct. Question 15 of 20 Which statement is true concerning a table used in an APA style paper? A. Separate rows with horizontal lines. B. Tables are most often used to present results but may be used to present other information. C. Tables never stand alone. The reader must read the text to decipher the data. D. All the above are true. Question 16 of 20 Regarding the reference page: A. Center the word References at the top of the page and underlined it. B. The reference page is not numbered. C. If there is more than one reference page, the word References should be centered at the top of each page. D. None of the above are true. Question 17 of 20 The format of an APA paper is as follows: A. Double-space entire paper with the exception of indented quotes; the quote is single spaced. B. Double-space throughout the paper. C. The title page should be single spaced. D. None of the above. Question 18 of 20 Double space should follow which of the following? A. Periods in the initials of names. B. Semicolons. C. Colons. D. None of the above. Question 19 of 20 Which of the following is correct regarding page numbers? A. Not suppressed with the abbreviation "pp." (example: pp. 221-227). B. Suppressed with the abbreviation pp.(example: pp. 221-7). C. Not suppressed (example: 221-227). D. Suppressed (example: 221-7). Question 20 of 20 When using abbreviations, A. Use spaces after each period (example: a.m.). B. Do not use spaces after each period (example: a.m.). C. If a sentence ends with an abbreviation, the last period of the abbreviation is used as the sentence's terminal punctuation. D. Both B and C are correct.

Genetics \"Full contents page, all pages numbered. Complete set of lecture notes for 2nd year Genetics for any biological or medical degree. These notes alone allowed the achievement of a first (1)/ A in this module. Contents DNA Structure – 2 Genomic Diversity – 4 Replication – 8 DNA Replication 2 – 9 Termination and Initiation – 13 DNA Damage and Mutation – 17 DNA Damage and Repair – 20 Damage Tolerance and Response – 22 Double Strand Break Repair – 25 Transcription – 29 RNA Processing – 32 Bacterial Genetics – 36 Bacterial Genetics 2 – 38 Regulation of Transcription – 42 Bacterial Regulation – 45 Cell Cycle – 46 Cancer – 49 Genes and Cancer – 52 Translation in Prokaryotes – 57 Translation in Eukaryotes – 59\"